Guest guest Posted January 4, 2006 Report Share Posted January 4, 2006 Hi , I think when we talk about DEAF here, being pre lingual and post lingual, we mean NO hearing at all, and no spoken language acquired via hearing. There are a lot of profoundly deaf people, who have become oral through lots of hard work. I feel if they heard at all, enough to attain language, they are probably post lingually deafened. Because hearing aids have helped them HEAR enough to acquire language. The problem for pre lingually deafened individuals who never heard, and never benefitted from hearing aids is that once they get sound from a CI they have to learn what all of it means. They could have a great deal of vocabulary, and be fantastic lip readers, but would have a lot of work ahead of them learning to put a sound to every word they know. Hope that makes sense. So, if a person has acquired hearing via hearing aids, and has acquired speech because they could hear with the hearing aids, then I'd consider them post lingually deafened. If the residual hearing they had was lost, but they had speech from hearing aid use, then they are post lingually deafened. The Original From: " and Davies " <prdavies@...> Subject: RE: postlingual What about a child that was born deaf but has learned to talk with hearing aids? Do the disadvantages of being pre-lingually deaf still apply to them even though they learned to talk with hearing aids? The term prelingually deaf covers a wide range of situations from children who never talk or learn spoken language through to those who talk very well and sound as if they might be normally hearing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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