Guest guest Posted March 13, 2004 Report Share Posted March 13, 2004 Dear Sammy and others, Here are my answers to your questions hope they help you out. Where did you say you got them from? Which study guide? 4. How many 150 mg clindamycin capsules are required to compound a prescription reading: " clindamycin 1%, propylene glycol 5%, isopropyl alcohol q.s. ad 480 mL " ? 1. 5 capsules 2. 32 capsules 3. 48 capsules 4. 56 capsules Jeanetta's answer: 2. 32 capsules Solve first for how many mg of drug is needed in 480 ml: Since 1% means 1 gram in 100 ml: 1 gram.....X gram....4.8 gram.....4800 mg ------- = ------- = ---------- = -------- 100ml......480 ml....480 ml........480 ml Since 4800 mg are needed we can divide 4800 by 150mg/cap = 32 capsules. 9. When an investigational drug expires, the pharmacy technician should: 1. remove the expired drug from inventory and destroy it according to EPA guidelines. 2. record the quantity of each lot number on the perpetual inventory record and return the product to the sponsor. 3. record the quantity on the inventory record and return the product to the wholesaler for credit. 4. remove the expired drug from inventory and return it to the FDA. Jeanetta's answer: I am not familiar with investigational drugs. I am Inclined to say that the answer is either 2 or 4. Help??? , Clincial expert, where are you??? Or any one else know? 21. Which of the following professional concepts most specifically refers to protection of the identity and health information of patients? 1. Motility 2. Confidentiality 3. Mortality 4. Compatibility Jeanetta's answer: 2. Confidentiality (I believe has discussedthis) 23. All of the following are automated dispensing systems except: 1. Pyxis. 2. Sure-Med. 3. McKesson's Baker APS. 4. Kirby-Lester KL 25 Jeanetta's answer: 4. Kirby-Lester KL 25 is a pill counter 1,2 and 3 are automated or robotic type dispensers. 26. How much codeine is contained in a tablet comprised of acetaminophen with 1/2 grain codeine? 1. 15 mg 2. 30 mg 3. 50 mg 4. 60 mg Jeanetta's answer: 2. 30 mg ( I believe Ihave discussed this and so has ) 28. Which of the following drug categories may be selected for DUE criteria? 1. Drugs known to cause adverse reactions or drug interactions 2. Drugs in phase III of the clinical trial 3. Drugs frequently backordered by the manufacturer 4. Drugs that are classified as controlled substances Jeanetta's answer: 1. Drugs known to cause adverse reactions or drug interactions is the BEST answer. Technically is it is used to review a prticular patients profile and to see if he/she is on drugs suitable for the diagnosed condition and in addition and mainly to see if any interact with each other. Also used to see if sniffs are keeping patients in zombie states. DUE = Drug Use Evaluation like the old DUR = Drug Utilization Review 33. Once the crash cart has been refilled and dated, it should be: 1. sent to the nursing unit. 2. checked and sealed. 3. sent to central sterile supply. 4. sealed and stored. Jeanetta's answer: 2. checked and sealed. Since anything stocked and ready for delivery must be checked before it goes out of the pharmacy one should not stock anything that has not been checked first. Example the time for a pharmacist to check prepackaged meds is not when they are going to the floor for a pt, but rather when they are first packaged and then stocked, so that when needed they have already been checked. Likewise for the crash cart. 34. A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for " tetracycline 250 mg capsules, #C. " The technician would dispense: 1. 10 capsules. 2. 50 capsules. 3. 100 capsules. 4. 1000 capsules. Jeanetta's answer: 3. 100 capsules. #C is the Roman Numeral for 100 . example a C- note = $100 38. When an institution agrees to purchase 80%-90% of its pharmaceuticals from a single vendor, this arrangement is known as a: 1. direct purchasing agreement 2. manufacturer agreement 3. borrow and loan agreement 4. prime vendor agreement. Jeanetta's answer: 4. prime vendor agreement. Direct purchasing is also the same as purchasing from the manufactuerer,and no borrowing here. 39. Which of the following medications on the profile would the pharmacy technician refill for a patient requesting " nerve pills? " 1. Chlordiazepoxide 2. Chlorothiazide (diuretic) 3. Chlorpheniramine (antihistamine) 4. Chlorpropamide (for diabetes) Jeanetta's answer: 1. Chlordiazepoxide , same as Librium a benzodiazepine, much like Valium or diazepam, classed an anti- anxiety, sedative/tranquilizer, hypnotic/sleeper,skeletal muscle relaxant with anticonvulsant properties,can also be used in alcohol withdrawl. (from Jeanetta's brain, not from a site so there may be more info not here). 40. A pharmacy technician has moved a class III prescription balance on a secure level surface. Before weighing any substance, the technician should: 1. place the substance on the right-hand pan 2. unlock the balance and level it to zero 3. place the desired weight on the left-hand pan 4. lock the balance and level it to 1 Jeanetta's answer: 44. The following prescription is ordered for a 6-year-old patient: Cipro 500 mg tablets Take 1 capsule b.i.d. for 10 days; disp 20 In assessing this prescription, the pharmacy technician recognizes that the: 1. duration of therapy will be 14 days. 2. dosage form is not available. 3. prescription is acceptable as written. 4. medication is inappropriate for the patient's age. Jeanetta's answer: 4. medication is inappropriate for the patient's age. " THE SAFETY AND EFFECTIVENESS OF CIPROFLOXACIN IN PEDIATRIC PATIENTS, ADOLESCENTS (LESS THAN 18 YEARS OF AGE), PREGNANT WOMEN, AND LACTATING WOMEN HAVE NOT BEEN ESTABLISHED. " See www.rxlist.com 46. Which of the following is a principle of an inventory control system? 1. First in, first out 2. First out, last in 3. Manufacturer rebate 4. Fast movers first Jeanetta's answer: I like Dora get perturbed over this! What ever is going to out date the soonest is what should be used or go ut first. While this USUALLY means the first received is the first used, or first in , first out, it is not always the case. Especially if different wholesalers are used. But for this I would say: 1. First in, first out 48. A dermatologist frequently orders 2 oz of the following prescription: LCD 2% Salicylic acid 5% QSAD yellow petrolatum The pharmacy technician wants to prepare a 500 g bulk amount, then prepackage it in 2 oz containers. How much salicylic acid will be needed to compound the 500 g? 1. 0.5 g 2. 2.5 g 3. 5 g 4. 25 g Jeanetta's Answer: 4. 25 g Since the wt/wt percentage of 5% Salicylic acid = 5 gram in 100 grams ointment, then 50 grams are in 1000grams of ointment So by division 25 grams are in 500grams of ointment. Ratio Proportion: 5 gram /100gram = X gram/500 gram 52. When a nurse calls for missing drugs, the pharmacy technician should: 1. check the patient's profile to verify the physician's order 2. tell the nurse that the physician has to write orders for them again. 3. tell the nurse to use the patient's own medication. 4. dispense the missing pills at once. Jeanetta's answer: 1. check the patient's profile to verify the physician's order Note : a common complaint among techs is that the nurses call for missing doses. Guess what most nurses are not missing doses! Most who call just do not know brand /generic names!!! Ugh!! 64. Which of the following drugs is an inhaled neuraminidase inhibitor for influenza A and B? 1. Vioxx 2. Xenical 3. Relenza 4. Tamiflu Jeanetta's answer: 3. Relenza A very tricky question. Most would opt to say 4. Tamilflu, mainly because of the word `flu' in it… both inhibit the influenza virus neuraminidase (an enzyme necessary for virual reproduction), but only Relenza is indicated for the influenza virus A and B . This is what separates the Men from the boys!(or women from the girls!) Relenza – " Mechanism of Action: The proposed mechanism of action of zanamivir is via inhibtion of influenza virus neuraminidase with the possibility of alteration of virus particle aggregation and release. Relenza is indicated for treatment of uncomplicated acute illness due to influenza A and B virus in adults and pediatric patients 7 years and older who have been symptomatic for no more than 2 days. " Where as: Tamiflu = " Mechanism of Action The proposed mechanism of action of oseltamivir is via inhibhition of influenza virus neuraminidase with the possibility of alteration of virus particle aggregation and release. TAMIFLU is indicated for the treatment of uncomplicated acute illness due to influenza infection in adults who have been symptomatic for no more than 2 days. " www.rxlist.com 66. An insurance or entitlement program that reimburses for products or services is a: 1. cash payment. 2. third-party plan. 3.home health care plan. 4. universal claim plan Jeanetta's Answer: 2. third-party plan. 67. To ensure the safety of employees, hazardous drugs must be: 1. unpacked and inventoried by the pharmacist only. 2. labeled to indicate that special handling is required. 3. listed on a quarterly report filed with the EPA. 4. stored in a biological safety cabinet. Jeanetta's Answer: 2. labeled to indicate that special handling is required. 71. The most important pieces of information to have on record in the event of a drug recall of medications are the: 1. NDC number and package size. 2. drug manufacturer and drug distributor. 3. drug name and controlled substance status 4. lot number and expiration date. Jeanetta's answer: 4. lot number and expiration date. NDC Number is the National Drug Code but will not identify a specific contaminated batch. Knowing the drug manufacturer and wholesaler is nice but if it has been recalled you either have been notified by the mfg or the distributor already! Drug name is known as soon as the recall is given. Narcotic control status has nothing to do with the recall. A specific batch of a specific drug made by a specific manufacturer may be distributed by many wholesalers. Knowing the lot number and the expiration dates of the original containers is crucial for removal from the shelves and market and recalling and retrieving from already dispensed meds to patients. 72. A patient is to receive 1 L of D5/0.45 NS with 20 mEq of KCl IV solution over 24 hours. The flow rate is: 1. 21 mL/hr 2. 24 mL/hr 3. 42 mL/hr 4. 84 mL/hr Jeanetta's answer: 3. 42 mL/hr 1000ml / 24 hours = 41. 67 ml/hr or 42 ml/hr TKVO= TKO = KO rate 73. In hospital pharmacies, which of the following resources contains broad general statements of philosophy and detailed guidelines for implementing them? 1. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) (gives chemical analysis of a substance and how to avoid exposure and how to treat exposure) 2. Policy and procedure manual 3. Human resources manual (Personnel manual is only for that department not the whole hospital). 4. US Pharmacopeia ( a book with detailed recipes for compounding) Jeanetta's answer: 2. Policy and procedure manual, a book that tells you what the hospital plans to do, how it plans to carry it out. JACHCO will look for this book and scrutinize it. Each department must have it s own P & P manual. 74. The purpose of the filter on an IV administration set is to prevent the: 1. contamination of blood products. 2. separation of an emulsion. 3. entry of particulate matter into the vascular system. 4. entry of air into the administration set. Jeanetta's answer: 3. entry of particulate matter into the vascular system. 76. Which of the following programs was developed by the FDA to standardize the reporting of adverse drug reactions? 1. MedWatch. 2. SideEffex. 3. ToxWatch. 4. DUE. Jeanetta's answer: 1. MedWatch. It is the ethical duty of all techs to utilize this system. 78. A Y-site on IV tubing refers to the: 1. primary set of tubing. 2. medication port in the tubing. 3. roller clamp located at the end of the tubing. 4. drip chamber of the tubing. Jeanetta's answer: 2. medication port in the tubing. This port is located on the main or primary line and a line from a piggy back or small volume parenteral is attached here. Analogy a dot on a line is to the line as the y-site of the primary tubing is to the primary set of tubing. 79. A physician writes the following radiation therapy mixture: Mix: Mylanta 88 mL Lidocaine viscous 2% 20 mL Diphenhydramine elixir 12 mL Sig: i or ii tbsp a.c. & h.s. What size bottle is most appropriate for dispensing the final mixture? 1. 2 ounce 2. 4 ounce 3. 1 pint 4. 1 liter Jeanetta's answer: 2. 4 ounces 88 + 20 + 12 = 120 ml 120 ml/ 30 ml/oz = 4 oz 82. The extent to which a dosage form retains the same properties and characteristics that it possessed at the time of preparation is known as its: 1. stability 2. concentration 3. pH 4. expiration Jeanetta's answer: 1. stability Factors which can affect stability are tonicity and Ph, as well as temperature and concentration. 87. Which of the following statements regarding mixing intravenous solutions with automated compounders is most accurate? 1. The manufacturers of these machines have installed highly sophisticated monitoring devices, such as audio and visual alarms, so additional monitoring of pump malfunction is not warranted. 2. These machines should rarely be used, because, in most instances, pharmacy technicians can prepare the solutions faster and more accurately. 3. Compounding errors associated with these machines are frequently associated with mechanical failure. 4. Operator error should be the main focus of a quality assurance program, because it is the primary reason for compounding errors. Jeanetta's Answer: 4. Operator error should be the main focus of a quality assurance program, because it is the primary reason for compounding errors. The videos that I show my students talk about maintaining the equipment especially changing the lines. Who does this? The tech. In additon the mechanical part of wear and tear is also checked by the tech. Wo ever inputs the compounding formula may make an error. This could be the tech or the RPh. So my best answer is 4, I really do not know the exact statistics of which is higher tech/operator or mechanical failure. 89. Which of the following is the recommended temperature storage range for etoposide (VP-16) capsules? 1. 2 degrees C to 8 degrees C (36 degrees F to 46 degrees F) 2. 8 degrees C to 15 degrees C (46 degrees F to 59 degrees F) 3. 15 degrees C to 30 degrees C (59 degrees F to 86 degrees F) 4. 30 degrees C to 40 degrees C (86 degrees F to 104 degrees F) Jeanetta's answer: 1. 2 degrees C to 8 degrees C (36 degrees F to 46 degrees F) per rxlist.com Used for testicular Cancer and small lung cell cancer VePesid® (etoposide) (also commonly known as VP-16) capsules are to be stored under refrigeration 2°-8°C (36°-46°F). DO NOT FREEZE 95. Online processing of a third-party claim to determine payment is called: 1. reconciliation 2. processing degree 3. adjudication 4. restriction Jeanetta's answer: 3. adjudication 96. How should nitroglycerin SL tablets be stored in a crash cart awaiting patient use? 1. The manufacturer requires that the container be broken and put in unit dose packaging for dispensing. 2. The bottle should be opened and the tablets should be placed in a pharmacy vial for dispensing. 3.The unopened bottle of tablets should be stored in the original container. 4. The manufacturer requires that the tablets be placed in a plastic bag before dispensing Jeanetta's answer: 3.The unopened bottle of tablets should be stored in the original container. > Jeanetta: > Thank you very very much! With your help, I have improved a lot, and > I have more confidence to take the March 20 Pharmacy Techinician > Exam. I wonder if the Exam lasts for 3 hour, and it is a pencil > paper exam. Once again, I have more questions ask for help. > > Thank you > sammy > > > 4. How many 150 mg clindamycin capsules are required to compound a > prescription reading: " clindamycin 1%, propylene glycol 5%, > isopropyl alcohol q.s. ad 480 mL " ? > 1. 5 capsules > 2. 32 capsules > 3. 48 capsules > 4. 56 capsules > > 9. When an investigational drug expires, the pharmacy technician > should: > 1. remove the expired drug from inventory and destroy it according > to EPA guidelines. > 2. record the quantity of each lot number on the perpetual inventory > record and return the product to the sponsor. > 3. record the quantity on the inventory record and return the > product to the wholesaler for credit. > 4. remove the expired drug from inventory and return it to the FDA. > > 21. Which of the following professional concepts most specifically > refers to protection of the identity and health information of > patients? > 1. Motility > 2. Confidentiality > 3. Mortality > 4. Compatibility > > 23. All of the following are automated dispensing systems except: > 1. Pyxis. > 2. Sure-Med. > 3. McKesson's Baker APS. > 4. Kirby-Lester KL 25. > > 26. How much codeine is contained in a tablet comprised of > acetaminophen with 1/2 grain codeine? > 1. 15 mg > 2. 30 mg > 3. 50 mg > 4. 60 mg > > 28. Which of the following drug categories may be selected for DUE > criteria? > 1. Drugs known to cause adverse reactions or drug interactions > 2. Drugs in phase III of the clinical trial > 3. Drugs frequently backordered by the manufacturer > 4. Drugs that are classified as controlled substances > > 33. Once the crash cart has been refilled and dated, it should be: > 1. sent to the nursing unit. > 2. checked and sealed. > 3. sent to central sterile supply. > 4. sealed and stored. > > 34. A pharmacy technician receives a prescription for " tetracycline > 250 mg capsules, #C. " The technician would dispense: > 1. 10 capsules. > 2. 50 capsules. > 3. 100 capsules. > 4. 1000 capsules. > > 38. When an institution agrees to purchase 80%-90% of its > pharmaceuticals from a single vendor, this arrangement is known as > a: > 1. direct purchasing agreement > 2. manufacturer agreement > 3. borrow and loan agreement > 4. prime vendor agreement. > > 39. Which of the following medications on the profile would the > pharmacy technician refill for a patient requesting " nerve pills? " > 1. Chlordiazepoxide > 2. Chlorothiazide > 3. Chlorpheniramine > 4. Chlorpropamide > > 40. A pharmacy technician has moved a class III prescription balance > on a secure level surface. Before weighing any substance, the > technician should: > 1. place the substance on the right-hand pan > 2. unlock the balance and level it to zero > 3. place the desired weight on the left-hand pan > 4. lock the balance and level it to 1 > > 44. The following prescription is ordered for a 6-year-old patient: > Cipro 500 mg tablets > Take 1 capsule b.i.d. for 10 days; disp 20 > In assessing this prescription, the pharmacy technician recognizes > that the: > 1. duration of therapy will be 14 days. > 2. dosage form is not available. > 3. prescription is acceptable as written. > 4. medication is inappropriate for the patient's age. > > 46. Which of the following is a principle of an inventory control > system? > 1. First in, first out > 2. First out, last in > 3. Manufacturer rebate > 4. Fast movers first > > 48. A dermatologist frequently orders 2 oz of the following > prescription: > > > LCD 2% > Salicylic acid 5% > QSAD yellow petrolatum > The pharmacy technician wants to prepare a 500 g bulk amount, then > prepackage it in 2 oz containers. How much salicylic acid will be > needed to compound the 500 g? > 1. 0.5 g > 2. 2.5 g > 3. 5 g > 4. 25 g > > 52. When a nurse calls for missing drugs, the pharmacy technician > should: > 1. check the patient's profile to verify the physician's order > 2. tell the nurse that the physician has to write orders for them > again. > 3. tell the nurse to use the patient's own medication. > 4. dispense the missing pills at once. > > 64. Which of the following drugs is an inhaled neuraminidase > inhibitor for influenza A and B? > 1. Vioxx > 2. Xenical > 3. Relenza > 4. Tamiflu > > 66. An insurance or entitlement program that reimburses for products > or services is a: > 1. cash payment. > 2. third-party plan. > 3.home health care plan. > 4. universal claim plan > > 67. To ensure the safety of employees, hazardous drugs must be: > 1. unpacked and inventoried by the pharmacist only. > 2. labeled to indicate that special handling is required. > 3. listed on a quarterly report filed with the EPA. > 4. stored in a biological safety cabinet. > > 71. The most important pieces of information to have on record in > the event of a drug recall of medications are the: > 1. NDC number and package size. > 2. drug manufacturer and drug distributor. > 3. drug name and controlled substance status > 4. lot number and expiration date. > > 72. A patient is to receive 1 L of D5/0.45 NS with 20 mEq of KCl IV > solution over 24 hours. The flow rate is: > 1. 21 mL/hr > 2. 24 mL/hr > 3. 42 mL/hr > 4. 84 mL/hr > > > 73. In hospital pharmacies, which of the following resources > contains broad general statements of philosophy and detailed > guidelines for implementing them? > 1. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) > 2. Policy and procedure manual > 3. Human resources manual > 4. US Pharmacopeia > > 74. The purpose of the filter on an IV administration set is to > prevent the: > 1. contamination of blood products. > 2. separation of an emulsion. > 3. entry of particulate matter into the vascular system. > 4. entry of air into the administration set. > > 76. Which of the following programs was developed by the FDA to > standardize the reporting of adverse drug reactions? > 1. MedWatch. > 2. SideEffex. > 3. ToxWatch. > 4. DUE. > > 78. A Y-site on IV tubing refers to the: > 1. primary set of tubing. > 2. medication port in the tubing. > 3. roller clamp located at the end of the tubing. > 4. drip chamber of the tubing. > > 79. A physician writes the following radiation therapy mixture: > Mix: Mylanta 88 mL > Lidocaine viscous 2% 20 mL > Diphenhydramine elixir 12 mL > Sig: i or ii tbsp a.c. & h.s. > What size bottle is most appropriate for dispensing the final > mixture? > 1. 2 ounce > 2. 4 ounce > 3. 1 pint > 4. 1 liter > > 82. The extent to which a dosage form retains the same properties > and characteristics that it possessed at the time of preparation is > known as its: > 1. stability > 2. concentration > 3. pH > 4. expiration > > 87. Which of the following statements regarding mixing intravenous > solutions with automated compounders is most accurate? > 1. The manufacturers of these machines have installed highly > sophisticated monitoring devices, such as audio and visual alarms, > so additional monitoring of pump malfunction is not warranted. > 2. These machines should rarely be used, because, in most instances, > pharmacy technicians can prepare the solutions faster and more > accurately. > 3. Compounding errors associated with these machines are frequently > associated with mechanical failure. > 4. Operator error should be the main focus of a quality assurance > program, because it is the primary reason for compounding errors. > > 89. Which of the following is the recommended temperature storage > range for etoposide (VP-16) capsules? > 1. 2 degrees C to 8 degrees C (36 degrees F to 46 degrees F) > 2. 8 degrees C to 15 degrees C (46 degrees F to 59 degrees F) > 3. 15 degrees C to 30 degrees C (59 degrees F to 86 degrees F) > 4. 30 degrees C to 40 degrees C (86 degrees F to 104 degrees F) > > 95. Online processing of a third-party claim to determine payment is > called: > 1. reconciliation > 2. processing degree > 3. adjudication > 4. restriction > > 96. How should nitroglycerin SL tablets be stored in a crash cart > awaiting patient use? > 1. The manufacturer requires that the container be broken and put in > unit dose packaging for dispensing. > 2. The bottle should be opened and the tablets should be placed in a > pharmacy vial for dispensing. > 3.The unopened bottle of tablets should be stored in the original > container. > 4. The manufacturer requires that the tablets be placed in a plastic > bag before > dispensing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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