Guest guest Posted January 9, 2007 Report Share Posted January 9, 2007 I am trying the 0.25 mg ervery-other-day for six days and nothing on the 7th, then injection of 0.5 ml of 200mg/ml of Test. enanthate. So far I think that this is OK. It is the first week that I have tried this and feel OK. Other weeks I have gone too low and had to lay off for a while. I really have to be careful and not go too far in one direction or the other. Louis. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 10, 2007 Report Share Posted January 10, 2007 I feel this should work just keep on Eye on your morning wood going to low you can 't get it up taking a pill. Phil louislarocque@... wrote: I am trying the 0.25 mg ervery-other-day for six days and nothing on the 7th, then injection of 0.5 ml of 200mg/ml of Test. enanthate. So far I think that this is OK. It is the first week that I have tried this and feel OK. Other weeks I have gone too low and had to lay off for a while. I really have to be careful and not go too far in one direction or the other. Louis. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 10, 2007 Report Share Posted January 10, 2007 I guess the other difference between the DIM an Arimidex is that the Arimidex keeps your overall T level up as opposed to DIM. Correct? Louis Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 10, 2007 Report Share Posted January 10, 2007 Arkansas, So you are on 1/4 mg per injection. This does not seem like much at all. Did you try other regimes before getting to this? I am trying 0.25mg every-other-day for 6 days then nothing on the seventh, then the injection of .5 ml of 200mg/ml enathate. I have yet to test but will be doing so in a week. I feel OK but some days are tough. Louis Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 10, 2007 Report Share Posted January 10, 2007 I take 1/4th on the day I take my shot. Keep in mind that I usually get tested on the last day or next to last of my 7 day cycle. So you would expect your E2 to go lower as your T goes lower. I do not have numbers on this regiment for the peak value. Arkansas chis_az <chis_az@...> wrote: How often are you on the 1/4 of arimidex dan? Chris > I am wondering what is the difference between the two? > > I currently use Arimidex. The pills are very small. I have found it easy to > go too low. > > Have people noticed any treatment differences? Is one easier to dose than > the other? > > Louis > > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 11, 2007 Report Share Posted January 11, 2007 No just getting E2 down brings up your T levels Free T goes up because getting E2 down brings down SHBG. Phil louislarocque@... wrote: I guess the other difference between the DIM an Arimidex is that the Arimidex keeps your overall T level up as opposed to DIM. Correct? Louis Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 11, 2007 Report Share Posted January 11, 2007 Yes I tried higher doses of arimidex and my E2 went offscale low. Through trial and error, this value seems to be about right. I probably could doe 1/4 two times a week and still be OK but I am trying to minimize cost and not take stuff I don't have to. There is still some issues associated with long term use of arimidex by men that are unknown. My theory is that if used in moderation (like most things) will minimize the risk. Am I as horny as an 18 year old - no but I can do what I need to do. Arkansas louislarocque@... wrote: Arkansas, So you are on 1/4 mg per injection. This does not seem like much at all. Did you try other regimes before getting to this? I am trying 0.25mg every-other-day for 6 days then nothing on the seventh, then the injection of .5 ml of 200mg/ml enathate. I have yet to test but will be doing so in a week. I feel OK but some days are tough. Louis Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 11, 2007 Report Share Posted January 11, 2007 Maybe I did not phrase my statement the way that I really meant it. I am primary therefore do not really think in terms of the feedback mechanism, my body cannot produce much T no matter what. Therefore the testosterone that is injected either gets bound to SHBG or albumin or is in a free state or gets converted to E2. If I continue along this line of thought: - If I take Arimidex then more T stays free instead of converting to E2, when my free T is high - If I was to use DIM then some fraction of my free T would end up as E2 then further converted to ....I forget exactly. The end result is a lower Total T for a given injection. I presently have very low SHBG (could be thyroid.....) and this complicates things. For me to get a high Total T my free T may have to be relatively much higher than most. I am not sure that I want to get it that high yet but if I do my above reasoning is that the DIM will work a bit against me. Any thought on my thinking on this? Louis Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 11, 2007 Report Share Posted January 11, 2007 So your saying this never happens Free T is bound to SHBG in a lot of men I have talked to that had High SHBG and E2 with low Free T. Getting E2 down the SHBG went down and the Free T come up. In this study SHBG came down. http://jcem.endojournals.org/cgi/content/full/89/3/1174 Phil chis_az <chis_az@...> wrote: I think that's incorrect Phil. Bringing down E2 usually increase total and free testosterone and it does so independently of SHBG. Reducing SHBG does not by any means automatically mean that SHBG will be reduced. The reason reducing E2 increase testosterone in basic terms is because; The hypothalamus cannot differentiate between testosterone and E2 and the hypothalamus basis its negative feedback system on the total steroid level (combined E2 DHT and Testosterone levels etc). When you reduce E2, the hypothalamus assumes that there is too little testosterone and so upregulates GnRH, this in turn upregulates LH- end result- increased testosterone. Although there are interactions between the hormones and SHBG, its relationship is far less clear and not well understood and is less linear than that of E2 and testosterone. If reducing SHBG were as simple as reducing E2 then high SHBG would be treated with arimidex, but it isn't. In fact that is why there are medications such as Danazol. > I guess the other difference between the DIM an Arimidex is that the > Arimidex keeps your overall T level up as opposed to DIM. > > Correct? > > Louis > > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 11, 2007 Report Share Posted January 11, 2007 On Thu, 11 Jan 2007 20:04:01 -0000, you wrote: > >The hypothalamus cannot differentiate between testosterone and E2 and >the hypothalamus basis its negative feedback system on the total >steroid level (combined E2 DHT and Testosterone levels etc). Do you have a literature cite for that? ----- " Anyone who has the power to make you believe absurdities has the power to make you commit atrocities. " - Voltaire Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 11, 2007 Report Share Posted January 11, 2007 On Fri, 12 Jan 2007 02:06:04 -0000, you wrote: >The negative feedback/ system/ Hypothalamus simply cannot >differentiate between the differing sex steroids. I've read and listened to a lot of lectures on endocrinology and I've not heard this before. I'd appreciate it if you could point me to something on this. ----- " Anyone who has the power to make you believe absurdities has the power to make you commit atrocities. " - Voltaire Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 11, 2007 Report Share Posted January 11, 2007 On Thu, 11 Jan 2007 19:59:58 EST, you wrote: >Maybe I did not phrase my statement the way that I really meant it. I am >primary therefore do not really think in terms of the feedback mechanism, my >body cannot produce much T no matter what. Therefore the testosterone that is >injected either gets bound to SHBG or albumin or is in a free state or gets >converted to E2. (Or converts to DHT) ----- " Anyone who has the power to make you believe absurdities has the power to make you commit atrocities. " - Voltaire Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 12, 2007 Report Share Posted January 12, 2007 I can only go by what Arimidex and DIM did for me. My levels never changed going from Arimidex to Indolplex/DIM and I got tested at the time every 4 weeks. I don't know if you seen these but read for you self here are some likes I have. http://www.dimfaq.com/index.htm This is a cut and paste from this link. http://qualitycounts.com/fpdim.html " DIM helps to eliminate active estrogen from the male body by promoting its conversion into the " good " metabolites. These metabolites then free up testosterone by bumping it off the testosterone-binding proteins. The end result is a healthier balance of testosterone to estrogen and more free testosterone circulating in the body. In scientific studies, high levels of testosterone and low levels of estrogen have been linked to lean body mass, an efficient fat-burning metabolism, and low abdominal obesity. Other benefits from testosterone are improved mood, more interest in sex, and better physical conditioning. In this chapter, we'll explore these issues in more detail. " Phil louislarocque@... wrote: Maybe I did not phrase my statement the way that I really meant it. I am primary therefore do not really think in terms of the feedback mechanism, my body cannot produce much T no matter what. Therefore the testosterone that is injected either gets bound to SHBG or albumin or is in a free state or gets converted to E2. If I continue along this line of thought: - If I take Arimidex then more T stays free instead of converting to E2, when my free T is high - If I was to use DIM then some fraction of my free T would end up as E2 then further converted to ....I forget exactly. The end result is a lower Total T for a given injection. I presently have very low SHBG (could be thyroid.....) and this complicates things. For me to get a high Total T my free T may have to be relatively much higher than most. I am not sure that I want to get it that high yet but if I do my above reasoning is that the DIM will work a bit against me. Any thought on my thinking on this? Louis Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 12, 2007 Report Share Posted January 12, 2007 Here is a cut & paste of some of what they said about SHBG doing down when E2 went down. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------\ ------------------------------------------------ Mean serum SHBG levels decreased from 38 ± 12 to 34 ± 12 nmol/liter --------------------------------------------------------------------------------\ ----------------------------------------------- Nothing works the same for eveyone but in my case and some others there SHBG went down when E2 went down. And there Free T went way up. I had to lower my dose of TRT just like the others did. So let me restate my post to say " No just getting E2 down brings up your T levels Free T goes up because getting E2 down (CAN) bring down SHBG. " Phil chis_az <chis_az@...> wrote: Phil, As far as I see it you have made an unfounded statement and you are trying to substantiate such with a link that does not as far as I can see say anything like what you are saying. Even if one link supported such a notion it would not necessarily constitute proof, even so I don't think the link supports you. .. I said quote Bringing down E2 usually increase total and free testosterone and it does so independently of SHBG. The reason reducing E2 increase testosterone in basic terms is because; The hypothalamus cannot differentiate between testosterone and E2 and the hypothalamus basis its negative feedback system on the total steroid level (combined E2 DHT and Testosterone levels etc). When you reduce E2, the hypothalamus assumes that there is too little testosterone and so upregulates GnRH, this in turn upregulates LH- end result- increased testosterone. unquote Your report said quote Anastrozole's effect on androgen production is likely directly mediated by the reduction in estrogen production By reducing estradiol synthesis (and hence estradiol's negative feedback on the pituitary and hypothalamus) (30, 31, 32, 33), anastrozole appears to stimulate pituitary LH secretion sufficiently to increase endogenous testosterone. unquote Forgive me if I am wrong, but haven't you just produced a report that has agreed with every word I have said? Moving on to what you said…… Quote So your saying this never happens Free T is bound to SHBG in a lot of men I have talked to that had High SHBG and E2 with low Free T. Getting E2 down the SHBG went down and the Free T come up. In this study SHBG came down. Unquote First of all you are putting words in my mouth and I think there is a danger of completely misinterpreting what I am saying by doing that. I am saying; I agree that E2 is lowered by Arimidex and I agree that this tends in most men to result in an increase in LH, total testosterone and free testosterone. I believe it does so in the exact manner described in the link you offered, Which is what I was saying anyway.. This says nothing of arimidex's in relation to SHBG (If I am missing something then I apologise- but I would need pointing to it). In fact, does it say anywhere in that link/report that SHBG was lowered? Irrespective of that; Can you show me serious substantiated evidence that SHBG is significantly lowered with the use of arimidex? I'm not sure you can, I'll be happy to look at it and alter my thoughts if you can do that. My position is this; Arimidex's mechanism of action as far as I know is that described in the report. I sated the same before you presented me the report. I am not saying that SHBG is not affected by arimidex, but I am saying that A) that is not the principle mechanism of action of arimidex and the relationship between SHBG and androgens and estrogens and other hormones is complex and not linear in the way you have suggested. Given the complexities involved I would not say that it is impossible for SHBG to come down in some men with arimidex.. But what I am saying is that A) I don't think SHBG will come down significantly in many men who take arimidex and I don't think it is the medicine of choice for the lowering of SHBG. Danazol is supposed to be far more effective in that regard. From what I have seen I think you might be making unfounded statements or at the least overly simplistic statements that are not uniformly true. If you can show me otherwise I'll be more than happy to accept that. > > I guess the other difference between the DIM an Arimidex > is that the > > Arimidex keeps your overall T level up as opposed to DIM. > > > > Correct? > > > > Louis > > > > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 12, 2007 Report Share Posted January 12, 2007 Here are some cut & pastes from this link this is the first thing I ever read on high E's in men and still to me the best. http://www.griffinmedical.com/male_hormone_modulation_therapy.html A more comprehensive study incorporating a different combination of nutrients resulted in eight out of eight men experiencing increases in free testosterone while levels of the undesirable SHBG declined in seven out of eight men, compared to baseline. Estrogen and other blood parameters were not significantly altered in this study. One further complication of excess estrogen is that it increases the body's production of sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). SHBG binds free testosterone in the blood and makes it unavailable to cell receptor sites (51, 52, 55, 56). Estrogen can also increase the production of SHBG, which binds the active free testosterone into an inactive " bound testosterone. " Bound testosterone cannot be picked up by testosterone receptors on cell membranes. For testosterone to produce long-lasting, libido-enhancing effects, it must be kept in the " free " form (not bound to SHBG) in the bloodstream. It is also necessary to suppress excess estrogen because this hormone can compete for testosterone receptor sites in the sex centers of the brain and the genitals. As readers of Life Extension Magazine learned in late 1997, estrogen has been identified as a primary culprit in the development of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Estrogen has been shown to bind to SHBG in the prostate gland and cause the proliferation of epithelial cells in the prostate (124, 182-184). This is corroborated by the fact that as men develop benign prostate enlargement, their levels of free testosterone plummet, although their estrogen levels remain the same or are rising. As previously discussed, aging men tend to convert their testosterone into estrogen. The published evidence shows that higher serum levels of testosterone are not a risk factor for developing benign prostate disease (8, 36, 41, 117-137). Lifestyle Changes Lifestyle changes (such as reducing alcohol intake) can produce a dramatic improvement in the estrogen-testosterone balance, but many people need to use aromatase-inhibiting agents to lower estrogen and to improve their liver function to remove excess SHBG. Aromatase converts testosterone into estrogen and can indirectly increase SHBG. SHBG binds to free testosterone and prevents it from exerting its biochemical effects in the body. Consider following some of the recommendations in the previous section to inhibit aromatase because many of the same factors are involved in excess SHBG activity. As discussed already, a hormone that controls levels of free testosterone is called SHBG. When testosterone binds to SHBG, it loses its biological activity and becomes known as " bound testosterone, " as opposed to the desirable " free testosterone. " As men age past age 45, SHBG's binding capacity increases almost dramatically--by 40% on average--and coincides with the age-associated loss of libido. Some studies show that the decline in sexual interest with advancing age is not always due to the amount of testosterone produced, but rather to the increased binding of testosterone to globulin by SHBG. This explains why some older men who are on testosterone replacement therapy do not report a long-term aphrodisiac effect. That is, the artificially administered testosterone becomes bound by SHBG and is not bioavailable to cellular receptor sites where it would normally produce a libido-enhancing effect. It should be noted that the liver also causes tes-tosterone to bind to globulin. This liver-induced binding of testosterone is worsened by the use of sedatives, antihypertensives, tranquilizers, and alcoholic beverages. The overuse of drugs and alcohol could explain why some men do not experience a libido-enhancing effect when consuming drugs and plant-based aphrodisiacs. An interesting review entitled " How Desire Dies " (Nature, 381/6584, 1996) discusses how frequently prescribed drugs, such as beta-blockers and antidepressants, cause sexual dysfunction. Prescription drugs of all types have been linked to inhibition of libido. Logically, one way of increasing libido in older men would be to block the testosterone-binding effects of SHBG. This would leave more testosterone in its free, sexually activating form. If all of the above fail to increase free testosterone and lower excess estradiol, ask your doctor to prescribe the potent aromatase inhibiting drug Arimidex (anastrozole) in the very low dose of 0.5 mg twice a week. Arimidex is prescribed to breast cancer patients at the dose of 1-10 mg a day. Even at the higher dose prescribed to cancer patients, side effects are rare. In the minute dose of 0.5 mg twice a week, a man will see an immediate drop in estradiol levels and should experience a rise in free testosterone to the optimal range. Phil chis_az <chis_az@...> wrote: The negative feedback/ system/ Hypothalamus simply cannot differentiate between the differing sex steroids. I have read this from many, many, many expert sources. What shows this fact best of all is pathology. If estradiol increases and testosterone and DHT remain the same, the hypothalamus will be looking to reduce GnRH and in turn LH. If estradiol and testosterone remain the same and DHT increases then once again the hypothalamus will reduce GnRH and in turn LH. For the most part you are looking at a three way balancing act. If any of these three sex steroids increases GnRH and LH will be lowered and you are looking at a negative feedback loop. (obviously if the total level of sex steroids reaches a certain level you have complete LH suppression and in these situations the above facts cannot be readily seen in pathology) A classic example of this balancing act going wrong and something that shows how the sex steroids are not correctly differentiated by the hypothalamus is seen in metabolic hypogoandism. Often the individual has an inappropriately NORMAL LH given a low testosterone level. Such individuals do not have any disease in the testicles or pituitary. When such men have dynamic evocative tests the HPTA shows a normal response and an increasing LH levels. Often this results in endocrinologists incorrectly telling the patient that they are not hypogondal because LH looks normal. As we know with typical secondary hypogonadism we see lowered gonadotropins. With testicular failure and typical primary hypogonadism we see elevated gonadotropins. In this case we see a normal LH DESPITE a low testosterone. This of course should not happen, so why does it happen? Because despite the fact that low testosterone and a working HPTA should see increased LH in order to rectify the problem, there is an inappropriately high level of estradiol- which the hypothalamus cannot differentiate from testosterone- this tricks the hypothalamus into thinking that there is enough testosterone when there is not and as a result we have a our negative feedback problem and metabolic hypogonadism. I am going to get my copy of the Testosterone Syndrome by Eugene Shippen and look at Chapter 5 on Estrogen, because I am sure that is one source that cites this fact. Hang on...I'll get the page an quote verbatim..... Ok this almost explains the situation and is the best I have to hand at present. Quote The mechanism of action is that the female hormone occupies some of the hypothalamic receptors in the brain. The hypothalamus is tricked into acting as if testosterone levels in the body are high, and so it fails to send out the hormones that would tell the pituitary gland to stimulate testosterone production in the gonads. This is a form of the secondary hypogonadism that we discussed in the last chapter, dependent now not upon a disease state or pharmaceutical side effects or mere aging but purely upon an inappropriate high level of estrogen. unquote I would like to have a word for word source that I could cite for you, but I don't keep these sources for such occasions, I just learn what I need to for my own purposes. Hopefully that covers it above well enough… > > > > >The hypothalamus cannot differentiate between testosterone and E2 and > >the hypothalamus basis its negative feedback system on the total > >steroid level (combined E2 DHT and Testosterone levels etc). > > Do you have a literature cite for that? > ----- > " Anyone who has the power to make you believe absurdities has the > power to make you commit atrocities. " - Voltaire > --------------------------------- TV dinner still cooling? Check out " Tonight's Picks " on TV. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 12, 2007 Report Share Posted January 12, 2007 Are you two mixing apples and oranges? I think one situation is using arimidex only and the affect has and the other is using arimidex while taking testosterone externally. They both have radically different responses especially related to LH. Arkansas chis_az <chis_az@...> wrote: The negative feedback/ system/ Hypothalamus simply cannot differentiate between the differing sex steroids. I have read this from many, many, many expert sources. What shows this fact best of all is pathology. If estradiol increases and testosterone and DHT remain the same, the hypothalamus will be looking to reduce GnRH and in turn LH. If estradiol and testosterone remain the same and DHT increases then once again the hypothalamus will reduce GnRH and in turn LH. For the most part you are looking at a three way balancing act. If any of these three sex steroids increases GnRH and LH will be lowered and you are looking at a negative feedback loop. (obviously if the total level of sex steroids reaches a certain level you have complete LH suppression and in these situations the above facts cannot be readily seen in pathology) A classic example of this balancing act going wrong and something that shows how the sex steroids are not correctly differentiated by the hypothalamus is seen in metabolic hypogoandism. Often the individual has an inappropriately NORMAL LH given a low testosterone level. Such individuals do not have any disease in the testicles or pituitary. When such men have dynamic evocative tests the HPTA shows a normal response and an increasing LH levels. Often this results in endocrinologists incorrectly telling the patient that they are not hypogondal because LH looks normal. As we know with typical secondary hypogonadism we see lowered gonadotropins. With testicular failure and typical primary hypogonadism we see elevated gonadotropins. In this case we see a normal LH DESPITE a low testosterone. This of course should not happen, so why does it happen? Because despite the fact that low testosterone and a working HPTA should see increased LH in order to rectify the problem, there is an inappropriately high level of estradiol- which the hypothalamus cannot differentiate from testosterone- this tricks the hypothalamus into thinking that there is enough testosterone when there is not and as a result we have a our negative feedback problem and metabolic hypogonadism. I am going to get my copy of the Testosterone Syndrome by Eugene Shippen and look at Chapter 5 on Estrogen, because I am sure that is one source that cites this fact. Hang on...I'll get the page an quote verbatim..... Ok this almost explains the situation and is the best I have to hand at present. Quote The mechanism of action is that the female hormone occupies some of the hypothalamic receptors in the brain. The hypothalamus is tricked into acting as if testosterone levels in the body are high, and so it fails to send out the hormones that would tell the pituitary gland to stimulate testosterone production in the gonads. This is a form of the secondary hypogonadism that we discussed in the last chapter, dependent now not upon a disease state or pharmaceutical side effects or mere aging but purely upon an inappropriate high level of estrogen. unquote I would like to have a word for word source that I could cite for you, but I don't keep these sources for such occasions, I just learn what I need to for my own purposes. Hopefully that covers it above well enough… > > > > >The hypothalamus cannot differentiate between testosterone and E2 and > >the hypothalamus basis its negative feedback system on the total > >steroid level (combined E2 DHT and Testosterone levels etc). > > Do you have a literature cite for that? > ----- > " Anyone who has the power to make you believe absurdities has the > power to make you commit atrocities. " - Voltaire > --------------------------------- 8:00? 8:25? 8:40? Find a flick in no time with the Search movie showtime shortcut. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 12, 2007 Report Share Posted January 12, 2007 I am not doing apples to oranges all I am saying is getting E2 down can bring down SHBG weather your on TRT or not. Doing this free's up Free T that bindes to SHBG. Phil Dan Meatheany <dmeatheany@...> wrote: Are you two mixing apples and oranges? I think one situation is using arimidex only and the affect has and the other is using arimidex while taking testosterone externally. They both have radically different responses especially related to LH. Arkansas chis_az <chis_az@...> wrote: The negative feedback/ system/ Hypothalamus simply cannot differentiate between the differing sex steroids. I have read this from many, many, many expert sources. What shows this fact best of all is pathology. If estradiol increases and testosterone and DHT remain the same, the hypothalamus will be looking to reduce GnRH and in turn LH. If estradiol and testosterone remain the same and DHT increases then once again the hypothalamus will reduce GnRH and in turn LH. For the most part you are looking at a three way balancing act. If any of these three sex steroids increases GnRH and LH will be lowered and you are looking at a negative feedback loop. (obviously if the total level of sex steroids reaches a certain level you have complete LH suppression and in these situations the above facts cannot be readily seen in pathology) A classic example of this balancing act going wrong and something that shows how the sex steroids are not correctly differentiated by the hypothalamus is seen in metabolic hypogoandism. Often the individual has an inappropriately NORMAL LH given a low testosterone level. Such individuals do not have any disease in the testicles or pituitary. When such men have dynamic evocative tests the HPTA shows a normal response and an increasing LH levels. Often this results in endocrinologists incorrectly telling the patient that they are not hypogondal because LH looks normal. As we know with typical secondary hypogonadism we see lowered gonadotropins. With testicular failure and typical primary hypogonadism we see elevated gonadotropins. In this case we see a normal LH DESPITE a low testosterone. This of course should not happen, so why does it happen? Because despite the fact that low testosterone and a working HPTA should see increased LH in order to rectify the problem, there is an inappropriately high level of estradiol- which the hypothalamus cannot differentiate from testosterone- this tricks the hypothalamus into thinking that there is enough testosterone when there is not and as a result we have a our negative feedback problem and metabolic hypogonadism. I am going to get my copy of the Testosterone Syndrome by Eugene Shippen and look at Chapter 5 on Estrogen, because I am sure that is one source that cites this fact. Hang on...I'll get the page an quote verbatim..... Ok this almost explains the situation and is the best I have to hand at present. Quote The mechanism of action is that the female hormone occupies some of the hypothalamic receptors in the brain. The hypothalamus is tricked into acting as if testosterone levels in the body are high, and so it fails to send out the hormones that would tell the pituitary gland to stimulate testosterone production in the gonads. This is a form of the secondary hypogonadism that we discussed in the last chapter, dependent now not upon a disease state or pharmaceutical side effects or mere aging but purely upon an inappropriate high level of estrogen. unquote I would like to have a word for word source that I could cite for you, but I don't keep these sources for such occasions, I just learn what I need to for my own purposes. Hopefully that covers it above well enough… > > > > >The hypothalamus cannot differentiate between testosterone and E2 and > >the hypothalamus basis its negative feedback system on the total > >steroid level (combined E2 DHT and Testosterone levels etc). > > Do you have a literature cite for that? > ----- > " Anyone who has the power to make you believe absurdities has the > power to make you commit atrocities. " - Voltaire > --------------------------------- 8:00? 8:25? 8:40? Find a flick in no time with the Search movie showtime shortcut. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 12, 2007 Report Share Posted January 12, 2007 On Fri, 12 Jan 2007 08:43:36 -0800 (PST), you wrote: >Are you two mixing apples and oranges? I think one situation is using arimidex only and the affect has and the other is using arimidex while taking testosterone externally. They both have radically different responses especially related to LH. > > Arkansas or me it's not about Arimidex at all. I'm merely trying to find a solid medical source for the statement that the hypothalamus does not differentiate between E2 and T. I can believe it, but I am somewhat skeptical as the body has a refined sensitivity in many organs, tissues and systems for differentiating all the steroids or glutocorticoids. They are almost all remarkably similar and based on minor changes to cholesterol. It just seems strange to me that with such fine receptive differences in so much of the body that at the ultimate control center the difference would not be recognized. But it does offer an explanation for some things. Unfortunately a lot of what is discussed around this issue, and even here, is based on best guess, surmises and interpretations. I was hoping for a solid medical cite for that. I don't fault him for not having one. It just would increase my reliance if I could find one. > >chis_az <chis_az@...> wrote: > The negative feedback/ system/ Hypothalamus simply cannot >differentiate between the differing sex steroids. > >I have read this from many, many, many expert sources. > >What shows this fact best of all is pathology. > >If estradiol increases and testosterone and DHT remain the same, the >hypothalamus will be looking to reduce GnRH and in turn LH. If >estradiol and testosterone remain the same and DHT increases then >once again the hypothalamus will reduce GnRH and in turn LH. > >For the most part you are looking at a three way balancing act. If >any of these three sex steroids increases GnRH and LH will be lowered >and you are looking at a negative feedback loop. (obviously if the >total level of sex steroids reaches a certain level you have complete >LH suppression and in these situations the above facts cannot be >readily seen in pathology) > >A classic example of this balancing act going wrong and something >that shows how the sex steroids are not correctly differentiated by >the hypothalamus is seen in metabolic hypogoandism. > >Often the individual has an inappropriately NORMAL LH given a low >testosterone level. Such individuals do not have any disease in the >testicles or pituitary. When such men have dynamic evocative tests >the HPTA shows a normal response and an increasing LH levels. Often >this results in endocrinologists incorrectly telling the patient that >they are not hypogondal because LH looks normal. > >As we know with typical secondary hypogonadism we see lowered >gonadotropins. With testicular failure and typical primary >hypogonadism we see elevated gonadotropins. > >In this case we see a normal LH DESPITE a low testosterone. This of >course should not happen, so why does it happen? > >Because despite the fact that low testosterone and a working HPTA >should see increased LH in order to rectify the problem, there is an >inappropriately high level of estradiol- which the hypothalamus >cannot differentiate from testosterone- this tricks the hypothalamus >into thinking that there is enough testosterone when there is not and >as a result we have a our negative feedback problem and metabolic >hypogonadism. > >I am going to get my copy of the Testosterone Syndrome by Eugene >Shippen and look at Chapter 5 on Estrogen, because I am sure that is >one source that cites this fact. > >Hang on...I'll get the page an quote verbatim..... > >Ok this almost explains the situation and is the best I have to hand >at present. > >Quote > >The mechanism of action is that the female hormone occupies some of >the hypothalamic receptors in the brain. The hypothalamus is tricked >into acting as if testosterone levels in the body are high, and so it >fails to send out the hormones that would tell the pituitary gland to >stimulate testosterone production in the gonads. This is a form of >the secondary hypogonadism that we discussed in the last chapter, >dependent now not upon a disease state or pharmaceutical side effects >or mere aging but purely upon an inappropriate high level of estrogen. >unquote > >I would like to have a word for word source that I could cite for >you, but I don't keep these sources for such occasions, I just learn >what I need to for my own purposes. > >Hopefully that covers it above well enough… > > >> >> > >> >The hypothalamus cannot differentiate between testosterone and E2 >and >> >the hypothalamus basis its negative feedback system on the total >> >steroid level (combined E2 DHT and Testosterone levels etc). >> >> Do you have a literature cite for that? >> ----- >> " Anyone who has the power to make you believe absurdities has the >> power to make you commit atrocities. " - Voltaire >> > > > > > > >--------------------------------- >8:00? 8:25? 8:40? Find a flick in no time > with the Search movie showtime shortcut. > > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 12, 2007 Report Share Posted January 12, 2007 On Fri, 12 Jan 2007 08:43:36 -0800 (PST), you wrote: >Are you two mixing apples and oranges? I think one situation is using arimidex only and the affect has and the other is using arimidex while taking testosterone externally. They both have radically different responses especially related to LH. > > Arkansas I just read Chris's response more carefully too and noticed the Shippen reference. I some how skimmed past that the first time. Sorry Chris. ----- " Anyone who has the power to make you believe absurdities has the power to make you commit atrocities. " - Voltaire Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 12, 2007 Report Share Posted January 12, 2007 On Fri, 12 Jan 2007 07:09:03 -0800 (PST), you wrote: >louislarocque@... wrote: > Maybe I did not phrase my statement the way that I really meant it. I am >primary therefore do not really think in terms of the feedback mechanism, my >body cannot produce much T no matter what. Therefore the testosterone that is >injected either gets bound to SHBG or albumin or is in a free state or gets >converted to E2. > >If I continue along this line of thought: > >- If I take Arimidex then more T stays free instead of converting to E2, >when my free T is high It can also convert to DHT. High DHT levels are another issue. >- If I was to use DIM then some fraction of my free T would end up as E2 >then further converted to ....I forget exactly. The end result is a lower Total >T for a given injection. > >I presently have very low SHBG (could be thyroid.....) and this complicates >things. For me to get a high Total T my free T may have to be relatively much >higher than most. I am not sure that I want to get it that high yet but if I >do my above reasoning is that the DIM will work a bit against me. > >Any thought on my thinking on this? > >Louis ----- " Anyone who has the power to make you believe absurdities has the power to make you commit atrocities. " - Voltaire Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 12, 2007 Report Share Posted January 12, 2007 You have to give it to he knows a lot more about this then most. Phil retrogrouch@... wrote: On Fri, 12 Jan 2007 08:43:36 -0800 (PST), you wrote: >Are you two mixing apples and oranges? I think one situation is using arimidex only and the affect has and the other is using arimidex while taking testosterone externally. They both have radically different responses especially related to LH. > > Arkansas I just read Chris's response more carefully too and noticed the Shippen reference. I some how skimmed past that the first time. Sorry Chris. ----- " Anyone who has the power to make you believe absurdities has the power to make you commit atrocities. " - Voltaire --------------------------------- Looking for earth-friendly autos? Browse Top Cars by " Green Rating " at Autos' Green Center. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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