Guest guest Posted March 13, 2004 Report Share Posted March 13, 2004 Based on published information, from American Heart Association Guidelines http://circ.ahajournals.org/cgi/content/full/104/17/2118#SEC8 or http://tinyurl.com/32ybp risk of stroke does not differ between^ pharmacological and electrical cardioversion so recommendations^ for anticoagulation are the same for both methods.^ Bobby Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted March 29, 2004 Report Share Posted March 29, 2004 > From: Bobby > Date: 3/13/04, 9:34 AM -0500 > > Based on published information, from American Heart >Association Guidelines > http://circ.ahajournals.org/cgi/content/full/104/17/2118#SEC8 > or > http://tinyurl.com/32ybp > > risk of stroke does not differ between^ pharmacological and >electrical > cardioversion so recommendations^ for anticoagulation are the >same for > both methods. Thanks for this URL, it is useful. Yes, indeed, at VIII. Management, B. Cardioversion, 2. Methods of Cardioversion, it says: " The risk of thromboembolism or stroke does not differ between pharmacological and electrical cardioversion. Thus, recommendations for anticoagulation are the same for both methods. " I disagree. I will explain why and, maybe, you will agree with me. Don't reject my opinion before you have read my argumentation - keep an open mind. This publication (33 pages) is a review of the literature; it lists 268 citations. Every detail is documented, yet the statement that there is no difference in risk between pharmacological and electrical cardioversion is unsupported. This is interesting. Considering the extensive review and citation of the literature and the review process of this publication (a joint publication of four professional organisations, three dozens reviewers) it is save to assume that there is no publication and that there has been done no survey that support that the " risk of stroke or thromboembolism does not differ between pharmacological and electrical cardioversion. " (But this does not explain why this statement was made. Maybe the writer concluded there is no difference when he didn't see anything to the contrary.) My argumentation that there is a differnce of risk between these two methods requires an assumption: clots (or at least some of them) that form in the atria during fibrillation are not freely floating in the atria but are in a state or place where they are not washed out when the atria resume their normal mechanical function. I believe I have read that the clots are not freely floating but somehow adhere to the wall. (See recent message #26085, http://tinyurl.com/3ekfa " [the clot] will attach itself to the heart muscle. " ) Also, if they were freely floating they would be washed out when the atria resume pumping and at that point strokes would occur, but, considering the many uneventful spontaneous conversions, it seems this does not happen. Why should there be a differnce of risk between the pharmacological and electrical cardioversion method, specifically, why should the pharmacological method be saver with respect to thromboembolism or stroke? Firstly, consider the pharmacological and the spontaneous self-conversion from A-fib to NSR. In both of these the transition from A-fib to NSR is smooth. (In the pharmacological conversion the pumping action of the heart may be reduced for a moment resulting in insufficient blood flow to the brain, causing fainting. But these hydrodynamic effects have nothing to do with clots getting into the blood flow. Recently a list member was mistaken about this - when this happened to her she was terrified and thought she is going to die.) Compare this with the electrical cardioversion. Here the heart is jolted and violent movements occur, involving all parts of the heart. In this event it is much more likely that clots get thrown into the blood stream. From the foregoing it must be concluded that the risk of thromboembolism or stroke in the pharmacological and the spontaneous self-conversion is the same but is higher in the electrical cardioversion. Recommended Doses of Drugs Proven Effective for Pharmacological Cardioversion of Atrial Fibrillation: http://tinyurl.com/269lo Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted March 29, 2004 Report Share Posted March 29, 2004 > From: Bobby > Date: 3/13/04, 9:34 AM -0500 > > Based on published information, from American Heart >Association Guidelines > http://circ.ahajournals.org/cgi/content/full/104/17/2118#SEC8 > or > http://tinyurl.com/32ybp > > risk of stroke does not differ between^ pharmacological and >electrical > cardioversion so recommendations^ for anticoagulation are the >same for > both methods. Thanks for this URL, it is useful. Yes, indeed, at VIII. Management, B. Cardioversion, 2. Methods of Cardioversion, it says: " The risk of thromboembolism or stroke does not differ between pharmacological and electrical cardioversion. Thus, recommendations for anticoagulation are the same for both methods. " I disagree. I will explain why and, maybe, you will agree with me. Don't reject my opinion before you have read my argumentation - keep an open mind. This publication (33 pages) is a review of the literature; it lists 268 citations. Every detail is documented, yet the statement that there is no difference in risk between pharmacological and electrical cardioversion is unsupported. This is interesting. Considering the extensive review and citation of the literature and the review process of this publication (a joint publication of four professional organisations, three dozens reviewers) it is save to assume that there is no publication and that there has been done no survey that support that the " risk of stroke or thromboembolism does not differ between pharmacological and electrical cardioversion. " (But this does not explain why this statement was made. Maybe the writer concluded there is no difference when he didn't see anything to the contrary.) My argumentation that there is a differnce of risk between these two methods requires an assumption: clots (or at least some of them) that form in the atria during fibrillation are not freely floating in the atria but are in a state or place where they are not washed out when the atria resume their normal mechanical function. I believe I have read that the clots are not freely floating but somehow adhere to the wall. (See recent message #26085, http://tinyurl.com/3ekfa " [the clot] will attach itself to the heart muscle. " ) Also, if they were freely floating they would be washed out when the atria resume pumping and at that point strokes would occur, but, considering the many uneventful spontaneous conversions, it seems this does not happen. Why should there be a differnce of risk between the pharmacological and electrical cardioversion method, specifically, why should the pharmacological method be saver with respect to thromboembolism or stroke? Firstly, consider the pharmacological and the spontaneous self-conversion from A-fib to NSR. In both of these the transition from A-fib to NSR is smooth. (In the pharmacological conversion the pumping action of the heart may be reduced for a moment resulting in insufficient blood flow to the brain, causing fainting. But these hydrodynamic effects have nothing to do with clots getting into the blood flow. Recently a list member was mistaken about this - when this happened to her she was terrified and thought she is going to die.) Compare this with the electrical cardioversion. Here the heart is jolted and violent movements occur, involving all parts of the heart. In this event it is much more likely that clots get thrown into the blood stream. From the foregoing it must be concluded that the risk of thromboembolism or stroke in the pharmacological and the spontaneous self-conversion is the same but is higher in the electrical cardioversion. Recommended Doses of Drugs Proven Effective for Pharmacological Cardioversion of Atrial Fibrillation: http://tinyurl.com/269lo Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted March 30, 2004 Report Share Posted March 30, 2004 In addition to fred's argument I'd like to put forward the idea that electric cardioversion carries is it's own upfront risk for a clot forming after the event (even if one isn't present at the time of conversion) which may well different from chemical cardioversion. see Anticoagulation for cardioversion of atrial fibrillation. http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov:80/entrez/query.fcgi?cmd=Retrieve & db=pubmed & dopt=Abs\ tract & list_uids=11830718 (http://tinyurl.com/ysoxc) -- D Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted March 30, 2004 Report Share Posted March 30, 2004 In addition to fred's argument I'd like to put forward the idea that electric cardioversion carries is it's own upfront risk for a clot forming after the event (even if one isn't present at the time of conversion) which may well different from chemical cardioversion. see Anticoagulation for cardioversion of atrial fibrillation. http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov:80/entrez/query.fcgi?cmd=Retrieve & db=pubmed & dopt=Abs\ tract & list_uids=11830718 (http://tinyurl.com/ysoxc) -- D Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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