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Any help with this s/l would be appreciated.

Mr. X likely has multiple sclerosis. He has had two attacks and has clinical

evidence of the optic neuritis. Given the MRI scan result and the reflex

asymmetry, one might consider the spinal lesion to be a second location. That

being the case, he fulfills the criteria of s/l " to-zer " . Because of the nature

of his episodes, I advised treatment with Copaxone. He is going to follow up

with you.

Thank you!

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