Guest guest Posted April 23, 2004 Report Share Posted April 23, 2004 A question for the group... We keep running into the issue of the use of drips after successful conversion from v-tach. I was always advised that if a certain medication was involved in the conversion to maintain levels of the same medication in the blood stream via a drip. Now I am told by several sources that if Amiodarone is used successfully, use a Lidocaine drip. However I have found drug info from " WYETH-AYERST LABORATORIES " that comes in the package the following: " Add 150 mg to 100mL D5W; administer over First 10 minutes (15 mg/min) or 300 mg, IV push, as recommended in VF/pulseless VT algorithm in the 2000 ACLS guidelines followed by Slow Add 900 mg to 500 mL D5W; administer 33.3 mL/hr over NEXT 6 hours (1 mg/min) " Then as I understand it a maintenance infusion can be used over 18 hours. My question to the group is this: 1. Which one is to be used for National Reg Exams 2. Which one is used for ACLS exams? I would appreciate any and all input. If you choose to email me directly, that would be cool too Thanks in advance. Larry Mc PJCEMSP Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 25, 2004 Report Share Posted April 25, 2004 The use of the appropriate drip that was responsible for conversion is the appropriate answer. Also, 1 mg/min is correct. We make it easy out here - why not mix the 150 mg amp with 150 cc bag of D5W - which by the way is the recommended fluid of mixing choice by the manufacturer of the drug - and run THAT at 1 mg/min. Since 1 mg with that concentration is in 1 ml, the calculation is MUCH easier in the acute setting when things are so stressed out as in EMS sometimes. Makes it easy.... Jane Hill Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 25, 2004 Report Share Posted April 25, 2004 Agreed, I have just been hearing the opposite info around the ACLS realm and it was news to me. We do the same. The less confusion the better. Larry Mc Re: Amiodarone vs Lidocaine drip > The use of the appropriate drip that was responsible for conversion is the appropriate answer. Also, 1 mg/min is correct. We make it easy out here - why not mix the 150 mg amp with 150 cc bag of D5W - which by the way is the recommended fluid of mixing choice by the manufacturer of the drug - and run THAT at 1 mg/min. Since 1 mg with that concentration is in 1 ml, the calculation is MUCH easier in the acute setting when things are so stressed out as in EMS sometimes. Makes it easy.... > > Jane Hill > > > > > > > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 25, 2004 Report Share Posted April 25, 2004 I don't know which " ACLS realm " you are hearing something different from, but that is the way it is taught out here. Jane Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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