RE: Male infertility

[Guest guest]

My response would be adoption. Everything else associated with ART would be not

in keeping with the teachings of the Church. Les Ruppersberger

[Guest guest]

I know for a fact the only thing the

church allows here is adoption. The CCL “Family Foundations” magazine

published an article a while back on all the methods of infertility treatment

(including some rather obscure ones!) and the Church’s official stance.

The bottom line is that no treatment can replace the “act of love”

necessary between the husband and wife to conceive. This means they allow

clomid, progesterone supplementation, etc, to support a “natural”

conception, but no IVF, donor sperm (or donor lover, for that matter!), etc.

For the record (although not pertinent in this situation), sperm CAN be

collected for testing (i.e. sperm count) but only with a perforated condom used

during love making or by collecting it from the woman’s uterus/vagina

immediately following natural lovemaking.

Male

infertility

I recently was contacted by a young couple questioning

what options were open to them in accordance with Catholic Church

teaching. She is 25, he is 30, married 3 years, trying to conceive for

the last 2 years. A recent workup has revealed that he was born without

either vas deferens. Morally speaking, I know what my answer to them will

have to be, but I wanted to be able to tell them that I had checked with the

" experts " for their opionions as well.

Sylvia Corson, RN FCP

[Guest guest]

Sylvia:

I found the CCL article I was referring to

this morning; if you or the couple wants a copy, it is in the Family

Foundations July-August 2004 issue, Volume XXXI, Number 1. I’m

assuming copies could be obtained through CCLI.org. Here are the article’s

highlights:

“When is reproductive technology is

morally right?

The Rule of Thumb is:

1. Any procedure which assists marital

intercourse in reaching its procreative potential is moral.

2. Procedures which add a “third

party” into the act of conception, or which substitute a laboratory procedure

for intercourse, are not acceptable.”

Technologies compatible with Catholic

teachings are:

1. NFP

2. General medical evaluation of

both spouses for infertility

3. Post-coital test to assess sperm

number (taken after normal intercourse)

4. Appropriate evaluation and

treatment of male factor deficiency, when seminal fluid sampes are obtained from

a non-lubricated, perforated condom after normal marital intercourse.

5. Assessment of uterine and tubal

structures by imaging (i.e. ultrasound, hysterosalpingogram, etc)

6. Appropriate medical treatment of ovulatory

dysfunction

7. Appropriate (usually surgical)

correction of mechanical blocks to tubal patency

NOTE: If tubal function cannot be

restored, transfer of an ovum past the point of blockage into the uterine

cavity (“low tubal ovum transfer or LTOT) preceded by normal intercourse during

the fertile phase.

Technologies under Discussion (neither

approved nor disapproved):

1. Gamete intra-fallopian transfer

(GIFT) so conception occurs in the woman’s body

2. Intrauterine insemination (IUI) of

“licitly obtained” (normal intercourse) but technologically prepared

semen sample (washed, etc)

Technologies not allowed:

1. Obtaining semen sample by

masturbation for either diagnosis or artificial insemination

2. IVF

3. Zygote intra-fallopian transfer

(ZIFT)

4. Intracytoplamic sperm injection

(ICSI)

5. Ovum donation

6. Surrogate uterus

My note: The article does not say

either way, but I’m assuming the sperm used in the GIFT procedure must be

“licitly obtained” from a normal act of intercourse also.

Hope this helps! My husband and I are facing secondary infertility (we

are age 26 and 29) and it was a lot easier for us to understand where the Church

draws the line even after just reading the “rule of thumb” above.

Before then we wee confused as to why things like Clomid and progesterone and

HCG supplementation (offered to us by Dr. Hilgers) were OK if the others were

not.

Kim

Male

infertility

I recently was contacted by a young couple questioning

what options were open to them in accordance with Catholic Church

teaching. She is 25, he is 30, married 3 years, trying to conceive for

the last 2 years. A recent workup has revealed that he was born without

either vas deferens. Morally speaking, I know what my answer to them will

have to be, but I wanted to be able to tell them that I had checked with the

" experts " for their opionions as well.

Sylvia Corson, RN FCP

[Guest guest]

The only way to obtain sperm in this case would be aspiration from the testes, a technology that has not been discussed. If GIFT or IUI were considered licit, would the use of an aspirated sperm sample preceded or followed by normal intercourse be licit? -----Original Message-----

Technologies under Discussion (neither approved nor disapproved):

1. Gamete intra-fallopian transfer (GIFT) so conception occurs in the woman’s body

2. Intrauterine insemination (IUI) of “licitly obtained†(normal intercourse) but technologically prepared semen sample (washed, etc)

Technologies not allowed:

1. Obtaining semen sample by masturbation for either diagnosis or artificial insemination

2. IVF

3. Zygote intra-fallopian transfer (ZIFT)

4. Intracytoplamic sperm injection (ICSI)

5. Ovum donation

6. Surrogate uterus

My note: The article does not say either way, but I’m assuming the sperm used in the GIFT procedure must be “licitly obtained†from a normal act of intercourse also. Hope this helps!

[Guest guest]

The focus in most of the Church’s views seems

to be more on how the sperm is obtained, and it would appear that anything

other than the man ejaculating into his wife is prohibited.  The difference I

see in your proposal from the GIFT and IUI is that this has not happened.  GIFT

and IUI consideration specifically mention that the sperm used must be that

which is acquired from the normal act of intercourse (either from the woman’s

body or from a perforated condom, I’m assuming).  The aspiration of sperm, even

in close proximity to intercourse, is still a separate act that does not acquire

the sperm in the accepted way.  I’m not a bible expert, but I’m assuming some

of this goes back to when God killed Onan for ‘spilling his seed on the ground’.

RE:

Male infertility

The only way to obtain sperm in this case would

be aspiration from the testes, a technology that has not been discussed.

If GIFT or IUI were considered licit, would the use of an aspirated sperm

sample preceded or followed by normal intercourse be licit?

-----Original Message-----

Technologies under

Discussion (neither approved nor disapproved):

1. Gamete

intra-fallopian transfer (GIFT) so conception occurs in the woman’s body

2. Intrauterine

insemination (IUI) of “licitly obtained†(normal intercourse) but

technologically prepared semen sample (washed, etc)

Technologies not allowed:

1. Obtaining semen

sample by masturbation for either diagnosis or artificial insemination

2. IVF

3. Zygote

intra-fallopian transfer (ZIFT)

4. Intracytoplamic

sperm injection (ICSI)

5. Ovum donation

6. Surrogate uterus

My note: The

article does not say either way, but I’m assuming the sperm used in the GIFT

procedure must be “licitly obtained†from a normal act of intercourse

also. Hope this helps!