Guest guest Posted October 17, 2006 Report Share Posted October 17, 2006 I am curious about this as well, so I hope any information you discover is shared. I have only found limited evidence that there is no sperm in pre-ejaculatory fluid if previous ejaculation was more than 24 hours or so. The sample sizes of the couple studies I've seen are so small as to really make the evidence indiscernible. I haven't weighed in on this before because I only have access to what is available online, which you've probably already seen. One study:http://www.ingentaconnect.com/content/klu/jarg/2003/00000020/00000004/00461193Article that footnotes two more studies (9 & 10): http://www.fhi.org/en/rh/pubs/network/v17_1/nt1717.htmOn the question of whether or not this would change how the subject should be taught...I am not a teacher yet. I am a midwifery student, planning to become a NFP teacher sometime in the future, so take whatever I say with that in mind. If I were in the position of teaching minors, I would be careful not to teach sperm in pre-ejaculatory fluid as fact. With young people, if they discover that what has been taught to them as fact is in actuality, not fact, often they throw out the baby with the bath water. I would caution that it may be possible, even probable. I would inform them that the evidence does not yet support either side. And then I would stress the emotional and moral implications as far greater than science/possibility of pregnancy in avoiding genital contact outside of marriage. For married couples, I would also teach where the evidence (lack of) stands. I would teach what the Catholic Church requires of the married couple regarding coitus, and I would stress that as a Catholic I cannot violate my conscience by teaching otherwise, and leave it up to them and their conscience to decide...also noting that the various NFP methodologies do not incorporate " withdrawal " , or whatever else may be implicated by non-ejaculatory genital contact, as a legitimate use of the method, i.e. potentially increasing one's chance of achieving pregnancy (yes, there's a bit of circulatory reasoning there, but if a method has been set and studied as effective with a set of standards, one cannot presume that violating those standards, even if believed evidentiary, will achieve the same results). -- Bekah <><Doula, Midwifery student in WIAAMI #1885http://www.newbirthcs.com/nbcs/ http://roadwelltraveled.wordpress.com/http://valleybirthnetwork.wordpress.com/ http://valleybirthnetwork.tripod.com/ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted October 18, 2006 Report Share Posted October 18, 2006 I agree with you, . I am also satisfied with the anecdotal evidence. Pam in El Paso Re: pre-ejaculatory fluid/pregnancy Dear Sheila, I am satisfied with the anecdotal evidence about possible pregnancy with pre-ejaculatory fluid. If there was none, the withdrawal method would probably be somewhat effective to prevent pregnancy. However, we know it is not effective. I agree that it would be best to have studies on this. It is surprising that there are so few. Knutson, RN, FCP5512 County Road 3Hokah, MN 55941Phone: E-mail: mbknutsonacegroup (DOT) cc pre-ejaculatory fluid/pregnancy It is my impression that NFP service programs (and maybe youth abstinence programs) are by and large teaching that pregnancy can result from genital contact, even without ejaculation, on the premise sperm are present in pre-ejaculatory fluid. Our organization has information to that effect on our website, and were challenged on its validity by a visitor to our site. In my attempt to provide documentation for the claim, I have been unable to. So.I too have questioned its validity, and my question to all on this list is what you are teaching clients and patients in this regard, and if there is not scientific evidence to back up this claim, would this change the way you teach on this? I am giving this one more shot on the list, as it is an issue I am grappling with (from a teaching perspective), and would appreciate input form the wise on this list. I have not had much response, and I am wondering if: 1) it is a non-issue for those on the list, because you do not even address the issue of pregnancy resulting from genital contact with patients/clients, or 2) you are confident teaching pregnancy can result from genital contact, even without ejaculation, anecdotally, so the lack of evidence to back up this claim is a non-issue, or 3) you have scientific support for the teaching (in which case I would lOVE to have the reference!) I will drop the inquiry if no response, but just wanted to give it one more shot before coming to my own conclusions.as from my perspective this has become a credibility issue.. Thanks!!! Sheila St. Executive Director California Association of Natural Family Planning 1217 Tyler St. Salinas, Ca. 93906 1-877-33-CANFP www.canfp.org Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted October 18, 2006 Report Share Posted October 18, 2006 I am satisfied with the anecdotal evidence about possible pregnancy with pre-ejaculatory fluid. If there was none, the withdrawal method would probably be somewhat effective to prevent pregnancy. However, we know it is not effective. The articles posted here argued that withdrawal was in fact somewhat effective. Toni Weschler in Taking Charge of Your Fertility cites Contraceptive Technology, Sixteenth Revised Edition as listing a user failure rate for withdrawal as 19%, and a perfect use failure rate as 4%. These are better than the failure rates of the " female condom, " and spermicides, and equivalent to the failure rates of the contraceptive sponge, the diaphragm and the cervical cap. This is certainly not ineffective.I am certainly not advocating withdrawal, but I just don't think you can say " it doesn't work at all. " Becky Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted October 18, 2006 Report Share Posted October 18, 2006 I REALLY am not trying to argue for the position that pregnancy is not possible from pre-ejaculatory fluid. I am just seeking the truth. I do not find the low effectiveness of withdrawal a case for the statement pregnancy can occur from pre-ejaculatory fluid, as pregnancies may be occurring during withdrawal because of timing----oops factor, if you will. And if there was NO scientific evidence, we would be left with anecdotal as the only basis for advising, but in this case what little studies there are, and the physiology, seem to indicate pregnancy would not occur. So I am a little uncomfortable contradicting that without any evidence to back up my claim. I actually just thought by posing the question, initially, I would be pointed in the direction of documentation for the statement, so am just surprised there really does not seem to be any. I think this means for me, that I will share my experience as a teacher of evaluating pregnancies that were reported to result from genital contact without penetration or ejaculation, but will be less confident in presenting our understanding of the presence of sperm in pre-ejaculatory fluid, or the likelihood of this occurring. Sheila St. Executive Director California Association of Natural Family Planning 1217 Tyler St. Salinas, Ca. 93906 1-877-33-CANFP www.canfp.org From: nfpprofessionals [mailto:nfpprofessionals ] On Behalf Of Knutson Sent: Thursday, October 19, 2006 11:50 AM To: nfpprofessionals Subject: Re: pre-ejaculatory fluid/pregnancy Dear Sheila, I am satisfied with the anecdotal evidence about possible pregnancy with pre-ejaculatory fluid. If there was none, the withdrawal method would probably be somewhat effective to prevent pregnancy. However, we know it is not effective. I agree that it would be best to have studies on this. It is surprising that there are so few. Knutson, RN, FCP 5512 County Road 3 Hokah, MN 55941 Phone: E-mail: mbknutson@... pre-ejaculatory fluid/pregnancy It is my impression that NFP service programs (and maybe youth abstinence programs) are by and large teaching that pregnancy can result from genital contact, even without ejaculation, on the premise sperm are present in pre-ejaculatory fluid. Our organization has information to that effect on our website, and were challenged on its validity by a visitor to our site. In my attempt to provide documentation for the claim, I have been unable to. So….I too have questioned its validity, and my question to all on this list is what you are teaching clients and patients in this regard, and if there is not scientific evidence to back up this claim, would this change the way you teach on this? I am giving this one more shot on the list, as it is an issue I am grappling with (from a teaching perspective), and would appreciate input form the wise on this list. I have not had much response, and I am wondering if: 1) it is a non-issue for those on the list, because you do not even address the issue of pregnancy resulting from genital contact with patients/clients, or 2) you are confident teaching pregnancy can result from genital contact, even without ejaculation, anecdotally, so the lack of evidence to back up this claim is a non-issue, or 3) you have scientific support for the teaching (in which case I would lOVE to have the reference!) I will drop the inquiry if no response, but just wanted to give it one more shot before coming to my own conclusions….as from my perspective this has become a credibility issue….. Thanks!!! Sheila St. Executive Director California Association of Natural Family Planning 1217 Tyler St. Salinas, Ca. 93906 1-877-33-CANFP www.canfp.org Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted October 18, 2006 Report Share Posted October 18, 2006 The effectiveness of withdrawal seems to be an issue of timing---(duh?). So is not really a basis anyway for claiming sperm are present in the pre-ejaculatory fluid, since ejaculation is occurring. Pregnancies from withdrawal may be from it occurring too late, or sperm from ejaculation being introduced to mucus, even after withdrawal, perhaps by hand to genital contact. So it does not seem to me that pregnancies resulting from withdrawal support the statement that pregnancy can result from only pre-ejaculatory fluid, when no ejaculation occurs. Am I making sense? Sheila St. From: nfpprofessionals [mailto:nfpprofessionals ] On Behalf Of Mandala Sent: Wednesday, October 18, 2006 1:26 PM To: nfpprofessionals Subject: Re: pre-ejaculatory fluid/pregnancy I am satisfied with the anecdotal evidence about possible pregnancy with pre-ejaculatory fluid. If there was none, the withdrawal method would probably be somewhat effective to prevent pregnancy. However, we know it is not effective. The articles posted here argued that withdrawal was in fact somewhat effective. Toni Weschler in Taking Charge of Your Fertility cites Contraceptive Technology, Sixteenth Revised Edition as listing a user failure rate for withdrawal as 19%, and a perfect use failure rate as 4%. These are better than the failure rates of the " female condom, " and spermicides, and equivalent to the failure rates of the contraceptive sponge, the diaphragm and the cervical cap. This is certainly not ineffective. I am certainly not advocating withdrawal, but I just don't think you can say " it doesn't work at all. " Becky Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted October 18, 2006 Report Share Posted October 18, 2006 Well, if we are to be satisfied with annecdotal evidence, I will share my own experience. Prior to my becoming Catholic, we used withdrawal successfully for two years. I have not been able to come anywhere close to that with NFP use (STM). We used NFP to identify the fertile period, but during the fertile period, we would use withdrawal. If withdrawal was completely ineffective, we should have been pregnant very quickly with this pattern. In fact, we did not become pregnant until we stopped using withdrawal and went back to total use of NFP. I have never been able to manage more than 4-5 cycles between children with the STM. Now I would never encourage withdrawal, for reasons of conscience, and am now rather embarrassed to admit to it, but it's been repented and never repeated.In my research, I have found what Becky quotes. In fact, Varney's Midwifery shows that withdrawal is similar in effectiveness to NFP and more effective than many barrier methods--cap, sponge, female condom--and spermicides. The articles posted here argued that withdrawal was in fact somewhat effective. Toni Weschler in Taking Charge of Your Fertility cites Contraceptive Technology, Sixteenth Revised Edition as listing a user failure rate for withdrawal as 19%, and a perfect use failure rate as 4%. These are better than the failure rates of the " female condom, " and spermicides, and equivalent to the failure rates of the contraceptive sponge, the diaphragm and the cervical cap. This is certainly not ineffective.I am certainly not advocating withdrawal, but I just don't think you can say " it doesn't work at all. " Becky -- Bekah <><Doula, Midwifery student in WIAAMI #1885http://www.newbirthcs.com/nbcs/ http://roadwelltraveled.wordpress.com/http://valleybirthnetwork.wordpress.com/ http://valleybirthnetwork.tripod.com/ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted October 19, 2006 Report Share Posted October 19, 2006 Sheila, let me reverse the question, do they have proof it cannot result in pregnancy? for whatever reason that has been the commonly accepted view(cav), sometimes cav's are true but unproven and because there could be serious consequences for abandoning them without solid evidence to the contrary, even though they perhaps are not proven, one can be justified in maintaining them perhaps with the caveat that this is commonly accepted but not proven or something to that effect. Maybe that's too unscientific but it seems logically tenable. what do you think? PX a > > It is my impression that NFP service programs (and maybe youth abstinence > programs) are by and large teaching that pregnancy can result from genital > contact, even without ejaculation, on the premise sperm are present in > pre-ejaculatory fluid. Our organization has information to that effect on > our website, and were challenged on its validity by a visitor to our site. > In my attempt to provide documentation for the claim, I have been unable to. > So..I too have questioned its validity, and my question to all on this list > is what you are teaching clients and patients in this regard, and if there > is not scientific evidence to back up this claim, would this change the way > you teach on this? > > > > I am giving this one more shot on the list, as it is an issue I am grappling > with (from a teaching perspective), and would appreciate input form the wise > on this list. I have not had much response, and I am wondering if: > > 1) it is a non-issue for those on the list, because you do not even address > the issue of pregnancy resulting from genital contact with patients/clients, > or > > 2) you are confident teaching pregnancy can result from genital contact, > even without ejaculation, anecdotally, so the lack of evidence to back up > this claim is a non-issue, or > > 3) you have scientific support for the teaching (in which case I would lOVE > to have the reference!) > > > > I will drop the inquiry if no response, but just wanted to give it one more > shot before coming to my own conclusions..as from my perspective this has > become a credibility issue... > > > > Thanks!!! > > > > > > Sheila St. > > Executive Director > > California Association of Natural Family Planning > > 1217 Tyler St. > > Salinas, Ca. 93906 > > 1-877-33-CANFP > > www.canfp.org > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted October 19, 2006 Report Share Posted October 19, 2006 Bekah, Are you saying that you are experiencing " method failures " each of these times? or do you mean that you have continued your prior practice of not abstaining during times of known fertility, albeit now, with the salutory practice of completing the marital act? PX a > > Well, if we are to be satisfied with annecdotal evidence, I will share my > own experience. Prior to my becoming Catholic, we used withdrawal > successfully for two years. I have not been able to come anywhere close to > that with NFP use (STM). We used NFP to identify the fertile period, but > during the fertile period, we would use withdrawal. If withdrawal was > completely ineffective, we should have been pregnant very quickly with this > pattern. In fact, we did not become pregnant until we stopped using > withdrawal and went back to total use of NFP. I have never been able to > manage more than 4-5 cycles between children with the STM. > > Now I would never encourage withdrawal, for reasons of conscience, and am > now rather embarrassed to admit to it, but it's been repented and never > repeated. > > In my research, I have found what Becky quotes. In fact, Varney's Midwifery > shows that withdrawal is similar in effectiveness to NFP and more effective > than many barrier methods--cap, sponge, female condom--and spermicides. > > > > The articles posted here argued that withdrawal was in fact somewhat > > effective. Toni Weschler in Taking Charge of Your Fertility cites Contraceptive > > Technology, Sixteenth Revised Edition as listing a user failure rate for > > withdrawal as 19%, and a perfect use failure rate as 4%. These are better > > than the failure rates of the " female condom, " and spermicides, and > > equivalent to the failure rates of the contraceptive sponge, the diaphragm > > and the cervical cap. This is certainly not ineffective. > > > > I am certainly not advocating withdrawal, but I just don't think you can > > say " it doesn't work at all. " > > > > Becky > > > > > > > > > -- > Bekah <>< > Doula, Midwifery student in WI > AAMI #1885 > http://www.newbirthcs.com/nbcs/ > http://roadwelltraveled.wordpress.com/ > http://valleybirthnetwork.wordpress.com/ > http://valleybirthnetwork.tripod.com/ > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted October 19, 2006 Report Share Posted October 19, 2006 What I am saying is that the evidence I am finding, a small study, indicated pregnancy would not result from pre-ejaculatory fluid. And the urologists I have spoken to have explained that they think pregnancy would be extremely unlikely, and do not believe it credible, as they explained the role of the cowpers gland, sperm production, path of sperm, etc. So yes, what I am saying is that not only is our teaching not proven, but seems to contradict what little evidence there is, and medical understanding of the process of sperm production..... Sheila St. Executive Director California Association of Natural Family Planning 1217 Tyler St. Salinas, Ca. 93906 1-877-33-CANFP www.canfp.org Re: pre-ejaculatory fluid/pregnancy Sheila, let me reverse the question, do they have proof it cannot result in pregnancy? for whatever reason that has been the commonly accepted view(cav), sometimes cav's are true but unproven and because there could be serious consequences for abandoning them without solid evidence to the contrary, even though they perhaps are not proven, one can be justified in maintaining them perhaps with the caveat that this is commonly accepted but not proven or something to that effect. Maybe that's too unscientific but it seems logically tenable. what do you think? PX a > > It is my impression that NFP service programs (and maybe youth abstinence > programs) are by and large teaching that pregnancy can result from genital > contact, even without ejaculation, on the premise sperm are present in > pre-ejaculatory fluid. Our organization has information to that effect on > our website, and were challenged on its validity by a visitor to our site. > In my attempt to provide documentation for the claim, I have been unable to. > So..I too have questioned its validity, and my question to all on this list > is what you are teaching clients and patients in this regard, and if there > is not scientific evidence to back up this claim, would this change the way > you teach on this? > > > > I am giving this one more shot on the list, as it is an issue I am grappling > with (from a teaching perspective), and would appreciate input form the wise > on this list. I have not had much response, and I am wondering if: > > 1) it is a non-issue for those on the list, because you do not even address > the issue of pregnancy resulting from genital contact with patients/clients, > or > > 2) you are confident teaching pregnancy can result from genital contact, > even without ejaculation, anecdotally, so the lack of evidence to back up > this claim is a non-issue, or > > 3) you have scientific support for the teaching (in which case I would lOVE > to have the reference!) > > > > I will drop the inquiry if no response, but just wanted to give it one more > shot before coming to my own conclusions..as from my perspective this has > become a credibility issue... > > > > Thanks!!! > > > > > > Sheila St. > > Executive Director > > California Association of Natural Family Planning > > 1217 Tyler St. > > Salinas, Ca. 93906 > > 1-877-33-CANFP > > www.canfp.org > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted October 19, 2006 Report Share Posted October 19, 2006 Dear Sheila, I am satisfied with the anecdotal evidence about possible pregnancy with pre-ejaculatory fluid. If there was none, the withdrawal method would probably be somewhat effective to prevent pregnancy. However, we know it is not effective. I agree that it would be best to have studies on this. It is surprising that there are so few. Knutson, RN, FCP5512 County Road 3Hokah, MN 55941Phone: E-mail: mbknutson@... pre-ejaculatory fluid/pregnancy It is my impression that NFP service programs (and maybe youth abstinence programs) are by and large teaching that pregnancy can result from genital contact, even without ejaculation, on the premise sperm are present in pre-ejaculatory fluid. Our organization has information to that effect on our website, and were challenged on its validity by a visitor to our site. In my attempt to provide documentation for the claim, I have been unable to. So….I too have questioned its validity, and my question to all on this list is what you are teaching clients and patients in this regard, and if there is not scientific evidence to back up this claim, would this change the way you teach on this? I am giving this one more shot on the list, as it is an issue I am grappling with (from a teaching perspective), and would appreciate input form the wise on this list. I have not had much response, and I am wondering if: 1) it is a non-issue for those on the list, because you do not even address the issue of pregnancy resulting from genital contact with patients/clients, or 2) you are confident teaching pregnancy can result from genital contact, even without ejaculation, anecdotally, so the lack of evidence to back up this claim is a non-issue, or 3) you have scientific support for the teaching (in which case I would lOVE to have the reference!) I will drop the inquiry if no response, but just wanted to give it one more shot before coming to my own conclusions….as from my perspective this has become a credibility issue….. Thanks!!! Sheila St. Executive Director California Association of Natural Family Planning 1217 Tyler St. Salinas, Ca. 93906 1-877-33-CANFP www.canfp.org Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted October 19, 2006 Report Share Posted October 19, 2006 Yes, I have learned that my temperature rises do not correspond with my fertility, and have experienced three " method failures " . The latter two both occurred during tricky 'return to fertility' scenarios. I'm now using Creighton instead, and think this will be a much better match, though I'm still waiting for my fertility to resume after #5 (who is 8 mo). We shall see. Bekah, Are you saying that you are experiencing " method failures " each of these times? or do you mean that you have continued your prior practice of not abstaining during times of known fertility, albeit now, with the salutory practice of completing the marital act? PX a __ -- Bekah <><Doula, Midwifery student in WIAAMI #1885http://www.newbirthcs.com/nbcs/ http://roadwelltraveled.wordpress.com/http://valleybirthnetwork.wordpress.com/ http://valleybirthnetwork.tripod.com/ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted October 19, 2006 Report Share Posted October 19, 2006 From the teaching standpoint. the absence of genital contact is more for the clarity of mucus pattern observance than pregnancy avoidance. The fact we have had couples tell us of " contact pregnancy " .. could be due to a number of factors: sperm in pre- ejaculate. misidentifying mucus pattern beginning or ending due to arousal fluid or unwillingness to admit to intercourse in fertile phase.. after all we are all human. I hear it more from the teens at the Crisis Pregnancy Center than from my clients " but we didn't go all the way " is not an uncommon statement.. they may not know what all the way is or they may be lying to themselves.. but they say it. Therese Egizio, RN NFPLI, Joliet, IL -- Pope II stated, " Anyone can see that the alternative here is only apparent. It is not possible to speak of the right to choose when a clear moral evil is involved, when what is at stake is the commandment, " Donot kill! " -------------- Original message ---------------------- > Yes, I have learned that my temperature rises do not correspond with my > fertility, and have experienced three " method failures " . The latter two > both occurred during tricky 'return to fertility' scenarios. I'm now using > Creighton instead, and think this will be a much better match, though I'm > still waiting for my fertility to resume after #5 (who is 8 mo). We shall > see. > > > > > > Bekah, > > Are you saying that you are experiencing " method failures " each of > > these times? or do you mean that you have continued your prior > > practice of not abstaining during times of known fertility, albeit > > now, with the salutory practice of completing the marital act? > > PX > > a > > __ > > > > > > -- > Bekah <>< > Doula, Midwifery student in WI > AAMI #1885 > http://www.newbirthcs.com/nbcs/ > http://roadwelltraveled.wordpress.com/ > http://valleybirthnetwork.wordpress.com/ > http://valleybirthnetwork.tripod.com/ Yes, I have learned that my temperature rises do not correspond with my fertility, and have experienced three " method failures " . The latter two both occurred during tricky 'return to fertility' scenarios. I'm now using Creighton instead, and think this will be a much better match, though I'm still waiting for my fertility to resume after #5 (who is 8 mo). We shall see. Bekah, Are you saying that you are experiencing " method failures " each of these times? or do you mean that you have continued your prior practice of not abstaining during times of known fertility, albeit now, with the salutory practice of completing the marital act? PX a __ -- Bekah <><Doula, Midwifery student in WIAAMI #1885http://www.newbirthcs.com/nbcs/ http://roadwelltraveled.wordpress.com/http://valleybirthnetwork.wordpress.com/ http://valleybirthnetwork.tripod.com/ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted October 19, 2006 Report Share Posted October 19, 2006 "From the teaching standpoint. the absence of genital contact is more for the clarity of mucus pattern observance than pregnancy avoidance." This depends on the method you are teaching. With Creighton, in the initial learning phase, you do instruct couples to avoid genital contact for one month or one cycle, whichever is shorter, in order to help them clarify their mucus pattern without the interference of seminal fluid. However, you also instruct couples, for purposes of avoiding pregnancy, to avoid all genital contact on days of fertility if they have a need to avoid pregnancy, due to the possibility of a contact pregnancy. Pam in El Paso [sPAM] Re: Re: pre-ejaculatory fluid/pregnancy From the teaching standpoint. the absence of genital contact is more for the clarity of mucus pattern observance than pregnancy avoidance. The fact we have had couples tell us of " contact pregnancy ".. could be due to a number of factors: sperm in pre- ejaculate. misidentifying mucus pattern beginning or ending due to arousal fluid or unwillingness to admit to intercourse in fertile phase.. after all we are all human. I hear it more from the teens at the Crisis Pregnancy Center than from my clients " but we didn't go all the way" is not an uncommon statement.. they may not know what all the way is or they may be lying to themselves.. but they say it. Therese Egizio, RNNFPLI, Joliet, IL--Pope II stated, " Anyone can see that the alternative here is only apparent. It is not possible to speak of the right to choose when a clear moral evil is involved, when what is at stake is the commandment, "Donot kill! "-------------- Original message ----------------------From: "Bekah Sealey" <BekahS77gmail>> Yes, I have learned that my temperature rises do not correspond with my> fertility, and have experienced three "method failures". The latter two> both occurred during tricky 'return to fertility' scenarios. I'm now using> Creighton instead, and think this will be a much better match, though I'm> still waiting for my fertility to resume after #5 (who is 8 mo). We shall> see.> > > >> > Bekah,> > Are you saying that you are experiencing "method failures" each of> > these times? or do you mean that you have continued your prior> > practice of not abstaining during times of known fertility, albeit> > now, with the salutory practice of completing the marital act?> > PX> > a> > __> >> > > > -- > Bekah <><> Doula, Midwifery student in WI> AAMI #1885> http://www.newbirthcs.com/nbcs/> http://roadwelltraveled.wordpress.com/> http://valleybirthnetwork.wordpress.com/> http://valleybirthnetwork.tripod.com/ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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