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Hello priya,i tried to get answers for all of the questions. The ones i did manage to find , i have underlined them. the ones i still have not been able to answer, i have ended with question marks ( ????).Hope this helpsbest of luck :)From: priya tamboli <priya.tamboli@...> ; Preet..smileplzz life widout humor is a bore! <pritithapar18@...>; marchbh@...; Kavita .. <sahoo.kavita@...>Sent: Wed, March 31, 2010 3:09:15 PMSubject: Help required to verify the answers...m appearing for exam next week.

Hello

friends,

When

going through the 1000 questions uploaded on the group, I am not convinced

with answer of few questions. Can you please help me to find the correct

answers? I am appearing the exam next week, I will appreciate if get the

feedback as soon as possible.

Thanks

Priya45. Carcinoma of the tongue has a

predilection for which of the following sites**

A.

Lateral border anteriorly

B.

Anterior dorsal surface

C.

Posterior dorsal surface

D. Lateral border posteriorly

E. No

preferred location

46. A patient presents complaining of a

stomach upset 48 hours after starting a course of antibiotic for oral

infection, this is an example of

A. Type

I allergic reaction

B.

Nervous disorder

C. Side effect of the drug

D. Type

IV hypersensitivity reaction

E.

Pyloric stenosis

49. A patient who has been taking quantities

of aspirin might show increased post operative bleeding because aspirin inhibits**

A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation

B.

Synthesis of prostacyclin and prevents platelet aggregation

C.

Synthesis of prostaglandin and prevents production of blood platelets

D.

Thrombin and prevents formation of the fibrin network

E.

Increase the absorption of vitamin K and prevents synthesis of blood clotting

factors

57. The inverse Square Law is concerned with

intensity of radiation using type D film of 200mm target to film distance, the

exposure time was 0.25s. What would be the exposure for the same situation with

400mm target to film distance

A. 0.5s

B. 1.0s

C. 2.0s

D. 0.25s

E.

0.125s ??????

65. Which is the right sequence of the

histological stages of tooth development

A. Initiation, proliferation, histodifferentiatio n,

morphodifferentiati on, mineralization

B.

Proliferation, initiation, histodifferentiatio n, morphodifferentiati on, mineralization

C.

Proliferation, morphodifferentiati on, histodifferentiatio n, mineralization

D.

Initiation, proliferation, morphodifferentiati on, histodifferentiatio n, mineralization

85. The pulp horn most likely to be exposed

in the preparation of large cavity in permanent molar tooth is

A.

Mesio-Lingual in upper first molars

B.

Mesio-Buccal in upper first molars

C. Disto-buccal in lower first molars

D.

Mesio-Lingual in lower first molars

E.

Mesio- Buccal in lower first molar ???????

114. 8 years old child presents with all

permanent incisors erupted, but yet only three permanent first molars are

erupted.Oral examination reveals a large gingival bulge in the unerupted permanent

area. A panoramic radiograph shows the alveolar emergence of the un-erupted

permanent first molar crown and three fourth tooth developments, there are no

other radiographic abnormalities. The most appropriate diagnosis

and treatment plan in such situation would be

A.

Dentigerous cyst; surgical enucleation.

B. Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues

exposure

C.

Ankylosis of the molar, removal of the first molar to allow the second one to

erupt into its place.

D.

Ankylosis of the molar, surgical soft tissues exposure and luxation of the

molar

E. Idiopathic

failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure and orthodontic traction.

145. Treatment of fibrous dysplasia consists

of

A.

Resection

B. Complete excision if it affects small area; if it is large

lesion, limited excision surgery because of the cosmetic considerations.

C.

Irradiation

D.

Excision and removal of adjacent teeth

E. None

of the above

206. To increase the stability of the lower

denture

A. The occlusal plane should be below the tongue

B. The

occlusal plane should be above the tongue

C. The

lingual flanges should be concave

210. In electro surgery, the tissue may stick

to the electrode because of

A. The

current intensity is too high

B. The current intensity is too low

216. In periodontitis, the most common

finding is, “Main feature of suprabony pocketâ€

A.

Horizontal bone resorption

B. Vertical bone resorption

C.

Angular bone loss

246. An oral prodromal signs of Rubella are**

A.

Fordyce’s spots

B.

Koplik spots

C.

Geographic tongue

D. None of the above

278. The gingival portion of natural tooth

differs in colour from the incisal portion because the

A.

Lighting angle is different

B.

Gingival and incisal portions have different fluorescent qualities

C. Gingival area has a dentine background

D.

Incident light is different

304. When all other removable partial denture

consideration remains unchanged; clasps constructed of which material can be

engage the deepest under cut

A.

Chrome cobalt casts

B.

Nickel chrome casts

C. Wrought stainless steel

D.

Wrought gold ??????

312. With dentin bonding agent, you apply

A. First

acid etching to dentine and then bonding agent

B.

Bonding agent directly to dentine

C. Chelating agent (EDTA) and bonding agent

343. The main advantage of amalgam with high

content of Cu is

A.

Better marginal sealing

B. Less corrosion

C.

Better tensile strength

D.

Higher and immediate compressive strength

359. Anaesthesia 1 mm above last lower molars

will anesthetize

A. Lingual Nerve

B. Long

buccal nerve

425. Calculus attaches to teeth surface by**

A.

Acquired pellicle

B.

Interlocking to the crystals of the tooth

C.

Penetrated into enamel and dentine

D.

Mechanical interlocking

E. All of the above

438. Which of the following is correct about

Nitrous Oxide N2O

A. N2O has high analgesic property and low anastatic at its

minimum anaesthetic dose. “Low MAC; Max Anaesthetic Concentrationâ€

B.

Absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy

C. Has

low blood diffusibility and result in hypoxia

D. It is

good aesthetic and low MAC

443. What to do with instruments after

surgically treating a patient with confirmed diagnosis of hepatitis B**

A. Soak

them in hypochlorite solution “Miltonâ€

B. Sterilize, scrub and sterilize

C.

Handle them with two pairs of household rubber gloves

D. Scrub

them with iodine surgical solution

466. TMJ dysfunction common symptom is

A. Clicking

B.

Locking

C. Pain

in the muscles of mastication

479. Which cement is less soluble in the oral

cavity

A.

Polycarboxylate

B. Zinc

phosphate

C.

Silicate phosphate

D. GIC

482. The first molars are extracted in both

arches

A. The

bone resorption will be the same for both arches

B.

Resorption is more on the palatal side of maxillary molars

C. Resorption is more on lingual side of mandibular molars

D. The

ridge height resorbs more in maxilla than mandible

490. Which of the following is the most

significant factor regarding filler in composite for increased strength

A.

Particle size 1-3 micron

B. Sub

micron sized particles

C. High concentration of the filler particles ???

524.What is the primary consideration in

providing nutrition/dietary counseling to a patient

A.

Secure details of patient’s eating habits

B. Have the patient to fill in a diet survey

C.

Eliminate sugar from diet ??? ( a or B)

526. Which of the following is not a side

effects of lignocaine

A. Angioneurotic oedema

B.

Nervousness

592. At birth, the oral cavity usually

contains

A. S.

mutans only

B. No micro organism

C. S.

mutans and S. salivavis

D. Lactobacilli

and S. mutans

615. A 13 year old has enlarged gingivae;

gives a history of Dilantin sodium what is you treatment

A. Oral

prophylaxis and gingivoplasty

B. Oral prophylaxis, scaling, root planning

C. Stop

medication

617. Which is wrong in regards to (water jet

spray) hydrotherapy

A. Does not harm gingivae

B.

Removes plaque

C.

Removes required pellicle

643. What is NOT A SIGN of neurological

trauma

A.

Excitement

B. Shock

C.

Improper eye sight

D.

Leaning

E. Sever

headache

F.

Vomiting

G.

Euphonia

H. Fixed

dilated pupils

647. Esophagitis, herpes simplex, colitis

during 5 weeks. You will find the same signs of

A.

Multiple myeloma

B. Erythema multiforme

C. AIDS

670. Most congenitally missing teeth are

A.

Mandibular 3rd molars

B. Mandibular 2nd premolars

C.

Maxillary lateral incisor

729. The best radiograph for maxillary sinus

is

A. PA

skull x ray

B. Occipitomental radiograph

C.

Town’s view

737. Dentinogeneses imperfecta develops in

A.

Initial stage

B.

Proliferation stage

C. Histodifferentiatio n stage

D.

Morphology stage

836. Which is NOT TRUE about occlusal trauma

A.

Cemental tears

B. Bone

loss

C.

Mobility

D. True pocket formation

E.

Bleeding in periodontal ligament

838. Hypodontia can be seen in

A.

Cleidocranial dysplasia “dysostosisâ€

B. Down’s syndrome

C.

Papillon le fever syndrome

D.

Rickets

839. Hyperdontia can be seen in

A.

Down’s syndrome

B. Cleidocranial dysplasia “dysostosisâ€

846. Which one of the following is expansile

lesion of jaw bone**

A.

Odontogenic keratocyte

B. Central haemangioma

C.

Radicular cyst

D.

Osteomyelitis

894. What is the Bilaminar Zone

A. Formed of, or having, two laminae, or thin plates. Which is

the distal

attachment

of superior hard lateral plate

898. How long it would take to notice

significant reduction in radiolucency after finishing a root filing for a tooth

with a periapical lesion

A. 6

months

B. 1 month

C. 3

months

923. Two conditions of enamel facilitate post

eruptive uptake of fluoride element

A. Hyper

mineralisation and surface dentine

B.

Surface demineralisation and hypo mineralisation

C. Dental fluorosis and enamel opacities ???

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hello  Raza, thanks a lot for your help. I appreciate your efforts.On Thu, Apr 1, 2010 at 2:59 PM, Mahhum Raza <mahhum@...> wrote:

 

Hello priya,i tried to get answers for all of the questions. The ones i did manage to find , i have underlined them. the ones i still have not been able to answer, i have ended with question marks ( ????).

Hope this helpsbest of luck :)

From: priya tamboli <priya.tamboli@...>

; Preet..smileplzz life widout humor is a bore! <pritithapar18@...>; marchbh@...; Kavita .. <sahoo.kavita@...>

Sent: Wed, March 31, 2010 3:09:15 PMSubject: Help required to verify the answers...m appearing for exam next week.

 

Hello

friends,

When

going through the 1000 questions uploaded on the group, I am not convinced

with answer of few questions. Can you please help me to find the correct

answers? I am appearing the exam next week, I will appreciate if get the

feedback as soon as possible. 

Thanks

Priya45. Carcinoma of the tongue has a

predilection for which of the following sites**

A.

Lateral border anteriorly

B.

Anterior dorsal surface

C.

Posterior dorsal surface

D. Lateral border posteriorly 

E. No

preferred location

 

46. A patient presents complaining of a

stomach upset 48 hours after starting a course of antibiotic for oral

infection, this is an example of

A. Type

I allergic reaction

B.

Nervous disorder

C. Side effect of the drug

D. Type

IV hypersensitivity reaction

E.

Pyloric stenosis

 

49. A patient who has been taking quantities

of aspirin might show increased post operative bleeding because aspirin inhibits**

A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation

B.

Synthesis of prostacyclin and prevents platelet aggregation

C.

Synthesis of prostaglandin and prevents production of blood platelets

D.

Thrombin and prevents formation of the fibrin network

E.

Increase the absorption of vitamin K and prevents synthesis of blood clotting

factors

 

57. The inverse Square Law is concerned with

intensity of radiation using type D film of 200mm target to film distance, the

exposure time was 0.25s. What would be the exposure for the same situation with

400mm target to film distance

A. 0.5s

B. 1.0s

C. 2.0s

D. 0.25s

E.

0.125s   ??????

 

65. Which is the right sequence of the

histological stages of tooth development

A. Initiation, proliferation, histodifferentiatio n,

morphodifferentiati on, mineralization

B.

Proliferation, initiation, histodifferentiatio n, morphodifferentiati on, mineralization

C.

Proliferation, morphodifferentiati on, histodifferentiatio n, mineralization

D.

Initiation, proliferation, morphodifferentiati on, histodifferentiatio n, mineralization

 

85. The pulp horn most likely to be exposed

in the preparation of large cavity in permanent molar tooth is

A.

Mesio-Lingual in upper first molars

B.

Mesio-Buccal in upper first molars

C. Disto-buccal in lower first molars

D.

Mesio-Lingual in lower first molars

E.

Mesio- Buccal in lower first molar     ???????

 

114. 8 years old child presents with all

permanent incisors erupted, but yet only three permanent first molars are

erupted.Oral examination reveals a large gingival bulge in the unerupted permanent

area. A panoramic radiograph shows the alveolar emergence of the un-erupted

permanent first molar crown and three fourth tooth developments, there are no

other radiographic abnormalities. The most appropriate diagnosis

and treatment plan in such situation would be

A.

Dentigerous cyst; surgical enucleation.

B. Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues

exposure

C.

Ankylosis of the molar, removal of the first molar to allow the second one to

erupt into its place.

D.

Ankylosis of the molar, surgical soft tissues exposure and luxation of the

molar

E. Idiopathic

failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure and orthodontic traction.

 

145. Treatment of fibrous dysplasia consists

of

A.

Resection

B. Complete excision if it affects small area; if it is large

lesion, limited excision surgery because of the cosmetic considerations.

C.

Irradiation

D.

Excision and removal of adjacent teeth

E. None

of the above

 

206. To increase the stability of the lower

denture

A. The occlusal plane should be below the tongue

B. The

occlusal plane should be above the tongue

C. The

lingual flanges should be concave

 

210. In electro surgery, the tissue may stick

to the electrode because of

A. The

current intensity is too high

B. The current intensity is too low

 

216. In periodontitis, the most common

finding is, “Main feature of suprabony pocket”

A.

Horizontal bone resorption

B. Vertical bone resorption

C.

Angular bone loss

 

246. An oral prodromal signs of Rubella are**

A.

Fordyce’s spots

B.

Koplik spots

C.

Geographic tongue

D. None of the above

 

278. The gingival portion of natural tooth

differs in colour from the incisal portion because the

A.

Lighting angle is different

B.

Gingival and incisal portions have different fluorescent qualities

C. Gingival area has a dentine background

D.

Incident light is different

 

 

304. When all other removable partial denture

consideration remains unchanged; clasps constructed of which material can be

engage the deepest under cut

A.

Chrome cobalt casts

B.

Nickel chrome casts

C. Wrought stainless steel

D.

Wrought gold                                    ??????

 

312. With dentin bonding agent, you apply

A. First

acid etching to dentine and then bonding agent

B.

Bonding agent directly to dentine

C. Chelating agent (EDTA) and bonding agent

 

343. The main advantage of amalgam with high

content of Cu is

A.

Better marginal sealing

B. Less corrosion

C.

Better tensile strength

D.

Higher and immediate compressive strength

 

359. Anaesthesia 1 mm above last lower molars

will anesthetize

A. Lingual Nerve

B. Long

buccal nerve

 

425. Calculus attaches to teeth surface by**

A.

Acquired pellicle

B.

Interlocking to the crystals of the tooth

C.

Penetrated into enamel and dentine

D.

Mechanical interlocking

E. All of the above

 

438. Which of the following is correct about

Nitrous Oxide N2O

A. N2O has high analgesic property and low anastatic at its

minimum anaesthetic dose. “Low MAC; Max Anaesthetic Concentration”

B.

Absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy

C. Has

low blood diffusibility and result in hypoxia

D. It is

good aesthetic and low MAC

 

443. What to do with instruments after

surgically treating a patient with confirmed diagnosis of hepatitis B**

A. Soak

them in hypochlorite solution “Milton”

B. Sterilize, scrub and sterilize

C.

Handle them with two pairs of household rubber gloves

D. Scrub

them with iodine surgical solution

 

466. TMJ dysfunction common symptom is

A. Clicking

B.

Locking

C. Pain

in the muscles of mastication

 

479. Which cement is less soluble in the oral

cavity

A.

Polycarboxylate

B. Zinc

phosphate

C.

Silicate phosphate

D. GIC

 

482. The first molars are extracted in both

arches

A. The

bone resorption will be the same for both arches

B.

Resorption is more on the palatal side of maxillary molars

C. Resorption is more on lingual side of mandibular molars

D. The

ridge height resorbs more in maxilla than mandible

 

490. Which of the following is the most

significant factor regarding filler in composite for increased strength

A.

Particle size 1-3 micron

B. Sub

micron sized particles

C. High concentration of the filler particles ???

 

524.What is the primary consideration in

providing nutrition/dietary counseling to a patient

A.

Secure details of patient’s eating habits

B. Have the patient to fill in a diet survey

C.

Eliminate sugar from diet ??? ( a or B)

 

526. Which of the following is not a side

effects of lignocaine

A. Angioneurotic oedema

B.

Nervousness

 

592. At birth, the oral cavity usually

contains

A. S.

mutans only

B. No micro organism

C. S.

mutans and S. salivavis

D. Lactobacilli

and S. mutans

 

615. A 13 year old has enlarged gingivae;

gives a history of Dilantin sodium what is you treatment

A. Oral

prophylaxis and gingivoplasty

B. Oral prophylaxis, scaling, root planning

C. Stop

medication

 

617. Which is wrong in regards to (water jet

spray) hydrotherapy

A. Does not harm gingivae

B.

Removes plaque

C.

Removes required pellicle

 

643. What is NOT A SIGN of neurological

trauma

A.

Excitement

B. Shock

C.

Improper eye sight

D.

Leaning

E. Sever

headache

F.

Vomiting

G.

Euphonia

H. Fixed

dilated pupils

 

647. Esophagitis, herpes simplex, colitis

during 5 weeks. You will find the same signs of

A.

Multiple myeloma

B. Erythema multiforme

C. AIDS

 

670. Most congenitally missing teeth are

A.

Mandibular 3rd molars

B. Mandibular 2nd premolars

C.

Maxillary lateral incisor

 

729. The best radiograph for maxillary sinus

is

A. PA

skull x ray

B. Occipitomental radiograph

C.

Town’s view

 

737. Dentinogeneses imperfecta develops in

A.

Initial stage

B.

Proliferation stage

C. Histodifferentiatio n stage

D.

Morphology stage

 

836. Which is NOT TRUE about occlusal trauma

A.

Cemental tears

B. Bone

loss

C.

Mobility

D. True pocket formation

E.

Bleeding in periodontal ligament

 

838. Hypodontia can be seen in

A.

Cleidocranial dysplasia “dysostosis”

B. Down’s syndrome

C.

Papillon le fever syndrome

D.

Rickets

 

839. Hyperdontia can be seen in

A.

Down’s syndrome

B. Cleidocranial dysplasia “dysostosis”

 

846. Which one of the following is expansile

lesion of jaw bone**

A.

Odontogenic keratocyte

B. Central haemangioma

C.

Radicular cyst

D.

Osteomyelitis

 

894. What is the Bilaminar Zone

A. Formed of, or having, two laminae, or thin plates. Which is

the distal

attachment

of superior hard lateral plate

 

898. How long it would take to notice

significant reduction in radiolucency after finishing a root filing for a tooth

with a periapical lesion

A. 6

months

B. 1 month

C. 3

months

 

923. Two conditions of enamel facilitate post

eruptive uptake of fluoride element

A. Hyper

mineralisation and surface dentine

B.

Surface demineralisation and hypo mineralisation

C. Dental fluorosis and enamel opacities ???

 

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