Guest guest Posted October 25, 2009 Report Share Posted October 25, 2009 After the announcement of the XMRV findings and how it might be transmitted, the thought occurred to me, why did it not infect the same group of high risk individuals that were infected by HIV? As a retrovirus, the exchange of bodily fluids and contaminated blood products are the most likely means of transmission. Than it ocurred to me, they were. But nobody knew it, and any symptoms they had were attributed to HIV. Than along comes the advent of the antivirals, and HAART that drove HIV to undectable levels, and possibly unknowingly, drove XMRV the same way. It would very interesting to test early blood samples from the beginning of the AIDS epidemic for signs of XMRV. Chances are you all way ahead of me on this line of thinking, but I am curious of any thoughts. Lynn [Moderator: Virus vectors (how they are transmitted) vary greatly. " Retroviruses are infectiously transmitted from one host to another by horizontal spread and by vertical transmission from mother to offspring, Retroviral genomes can also be transmitted non infectiously as Mendelian provirus integrated in the germ line of the host... Indeed all the main modes of infections, bar aerosols, are recorded for one retrovirus or another,... " See Infectious disease in the aging: a clinical handbook By T. Yoshikawa, Dean C. Norman; Humana Press; 1st edition (April 15, 2000) on Google Books] Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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